Batter hits a high pop fly past third base. The left fielder is standing in foul ground to catch it but the ball ticks off his glove and lands fair. The ball likely would have been foul if it hadn’t been touched by the fielder. Is the ball ruled fair or foul?
Rule 2.00 states:
I believe this should mean the ball is ruled foul.
This is a common question and not a stupid question. The umpire must rule if the ball was foul at the time it was touched, not where it lands. This rule will most commonly come into effect when a first or third baseman tries to field a line drive hit up the base line. If they catch it, it is an out. If they miss the catch, the umpire (usually the home plate umpire) has to rule whether the ball was in fair or foul territory (a plane over the base line) when it was touched.
I’m thinking that the reason for the rule is to prevent player from using his glove to direct the ball either fair or foul with the intent of not catching it in order to force a baserunner into an out.
Even when the ball is caught, the umpire will rule if it is fair or foul, although there it makes no difference. Incidentally, the home plate umpire rules on infield balls, but once it passes first or third, it is the base umpire’s call (except in playoff games where there are outfield umpires).
I was unaware of the rule about the pitcher’s mound. I guess umpires are beyond the base lines, so if it hits an umpire in fair territory and bounds foul it is still a fair ball.
It’s a foul ball, as shown in the referenced rule.
I’ve got one. Remember when Jose Canseco had a ball bounce off his head and go over the outfield fence for a homer?
Well, suppose Smith hits a screaming line drive at third base. The third baseman, who was unfortunately playing the bunt, is in the head in fair territory. The ball then richochets into foul territory and over the dugout into the stands on the fly. What’s the call?
The rule as quoted by pulykamell is strongly suggestive that it is a foul ball. However, while the fielder was standing in foul territory, the question is whether his (arm and) glove, as the ball grazed it and then fell fair, was within fair territory – as the rule clearly suggests. Where his feet were is immaterial; it is where his glove was that counts. There’s good reason to believe it was in foul territory, but it would be the umpire’s call wiether it was in foul or fair territory at the time the ball ricocheted off it.
According to your scenario, the 3rd baseman is playing a bunt which would position him between 3rd base and home. Therefore, if it hit him and went foul it would be a foul ball. Think of a bunt that hits the ground fair but rolls into foul territory. It is a foul ball. If the 3rd basemen was on the other side of 3rd base then the call would be different. Think of a ball that is hit to left field inside the foul line and then hooks into the corner of left field that is in foul territory. It is a fair ball and the fielder must play it as such.
Once it touches the 3rd baseman in fair territory it’s a fair ball. When it goes out of play foul, it’s a ground rule double.
This would be my guess, as well, based on 2.00 for fair ball:
Moving to The Game Room from GQ.
Colibri
General Questions Moderator
Ah, yes. Thanks. That helped me find the correct rule.
No. Once the infielder touches it in fair territory, the call is fair ball and the ball is in play.
No. Otherwise players would just “slap” or “accidentally” botch bunts or slow rollers foul.
I stand corrected. I didn’t do my homework with the rule book and actually contradicted the logic in my earlier post. You are right. The player touching the ball in fair territory makes it a fair ball. Otherwise they would slap the bunts into foul territory.