Can a motorcycle not be considered a motor vehicle in a legal dispute?

Lets say I buy a classic bike. It is titled in my name after I buy it, but never registered.
I procede to restore it back to like new condition. I do not install a battery, oil or gas.
It is so nice to look at I put in my study as Art.
The house burns down and the insurance company doesn’t want to pay because the contract clearly states the building, my home, is not to used for the storage or repair of motor vehicles.
Is the bike in my study a motor vehicle as defined by the contract?

As always this is just a thought experiment, no fire has occured.
I was just wondering because a gun can be converted legally to a non-gun by following a known set of rules and welding the action to be non-functional.
Would I have to weld the engine tight, or leave out the pistons, or will a titled motorcycle always be a motor vehicle?

I’m afraid you’ve hit upon one of the core unsettled issues of modern jurisprudence, the Hart-Fuller debate. :smiley:

From the Wiki link above:
“… banning vehicles from the park. For example, if the purpose were to prevent noise pollution, a bicycle would not be a vehicle for the purposes of the law”

Interesting.

Check the wording in your insurance policy. There is probably a clause defining “motor vehicle.”

“Whether the device driven by the defendant in a DWI case is a “motor vehicle” is usually not an issue. A car, truck, van, or jeep is a motor vehicle; a bicycle is not. When issues have arisen regarding whether an inoperable or unmovable vehicle was a “motor vehicle” within the statutory definition, the courts have usually offered a broad definition to include such vehicles.”

I found the above quote which means I should not sit on the “Art” when drunk, I guess.

It’s a very brief summary of a debate between two law professors about the philosphy that should underlie judicial interpretation of the law. Hart started the conversation by imagining a hypothetical statute:

Fuller took exception with the concept that concept that even a law as simple as the “no vehicles in the park” example has a core of settled meaning:

There might be a more straightforward answer to you question, although I suspect it will depend heavily on the exact wording in the contract and the law of the jurisdiction. I only bring up the Hart-Fuller debate because the question of “when is a vehicle not a vehicle” is one that professors have been beating up law students with for decades, and your hypo sounds like a pretty close variant of the classic question. :slight_smile: