If it is conclusively demonstrated that the Trump administration colluded with the Russian government or agents thereof with the express intent of reducing sanctions against said government/agents in exchange for assistance during the election, would that constitute Treason?
Definitions used:
Definition of Treason, as I understand it:
Source: 18 U.S. Code § 2381 - Treason | U.S. Code | US Law | LII / Legal Information Institute
OR, functionally identical (From US constitution)
Aid and comfort is further detailed as meaning:
As reducing sanctions certainly achieves both, it would qualify. But the question is, is Russia an enemy of the United States?
“Enemy of the United States” is defined as:
And, unraveling it further, Hostilities is defined as:
(U.S. Code › Title 10 › Subtitle A › Part II › Chapter 47A › Subchapter I › § 948a)
Now, so far as I’m aware, the Laws of War don’t actually cover “cyber warfare,” so it would be very hard to make a case that Russia’s actions directly against the United States constitute a conflict subject to the laws of war. Please correct me if I’m wrong, as that simplifies things greatly. Russia has, however, committed a treaty violation by way of the Budapest Memorandum on Security Assurances. This is arguably casus belli whether or not it would be wise to respond as such and is arguably conduct subject to the laws of war. “Conflict” as used in the US code does not require an ongoing war.
The sanctions, meanwhile, are directly associated with this act and would arguably be a part of this “conflict.”
Another thought occurs to me as I go over all of this. Certainly many perfectly legitimate acts might appear to “give aid and comfort” to enemies of the United States, as all rational negotiations require a give and take approach. Acts such as appeasement can be viewed as such, but we give the executive branch a fairly broad license (I know plenty who would accuse the Iran Deal of being aid and comfort, for instance). With this broad license, would Trump’s reduction/elimination of sanctions actually be illegal at that point? Even if it’s for the express, personal gain of the president - or rather, remuneration for past personal gains?
Conflict of interest? Clearly so… but a crime? So far as I’m aware, it’s neither a crime nor a conspiracy to commit one if at the time of the act it would be legal.
tldr
[ul]
[li]Is Russia an “enemy of the United States?”[/li][li]Are we in any form of “hostilities” with them (vis-a-vis treaty violations and/or cyberwarfare)?[/li][li]Is Trump using the office of the president to repay Russia for election tampering “giving aid and comfort” to Russia?[/li][li]If Yes to all of the above, didn’t Trump/admin commit treason?[/li][/ul]
(Note: Most of this is matter of fact, but legal interpretations invite opinion even when they shouldn’t and this is a highly political topic - so, I’m asking in GD even though it’s a GQ)