I had an eye exam last week and am getting new glasses (actually the same prescription as my old ones, but the coating is coming off the ones I have).
Something he pointed out was that my prescription should be -4.95 in both eyes, objectively, but when I am given the choice between that prescription and a -5.95, I choose the higher prescription. He suggested I might have something muscle-related in my eyes and asked if I had ever been tested. I said no and he said the treatments likely wouldn’t do much if anything for me now at age 42. We dropped the subject.
I just started thinking about it and wanted to see what it was he meant. Can anyone help?