Many androgen-related studies have suggested that testosterone not only affects the strength of a man’s sex-drive, but also his sensitivity to the threat of punishment, and his ability to be empathic with other people’s suffering. That is, heightened testosterone levels could be a determining factor towards a man’s propensity to rape.
Sexual offenders who were surgically castrated have shown a strong reduction in sexual thoughts, masturbation and frequency of coitus. This is, of course, pretty much an irreversible process.
An alternate procedure is chemical castration. This involves giving the offender Depo Provera (progestrone, a female hormone) on a regular basis to inhibit testosterone production. An analysis of the history of these offenders has shown that only about 2-5% of chemically castrated men reoffend, in comparision to 60-70% of the non-castrated. The Depo Provera process is reversible: stop giving hormones and testosterone pops back to normal sooner or later.
There has been some research that questions the effectiveness of such methods. Their premise is that such treatments incite violence psychologically. A reaction at being violated, so to speak. The large part of the studies I checked out, however, seemed to indicate that castration was pretty effective in reducing sexual impulses. So, even assuming many of the castrated offenders do reoffend owing to their need for power, or their anger, or any such reason, you still end up with many who don’t reoffend on account of reduced desire.
The reason I give these facts (references can easily provided upon request) is because I wish to know whether you consider it acceptable to interfere thus with a human being. Are the sex offender’s human rights being violated when one fiddles with his body as punishment? On a continuous scale, where does the line of acceptability stop - at incarceration, at chemical castration, at surgical castration? How about degree of crime? Since children are considered so sacred in all societies, should a child molestor be judged more harshly (i.e., be castrated) than a man who rapes a woman?
I believe there are laws that validate castration in the United States. (I am ignorant about the details, please note.) This fact puzzles me. If the United States doesn’t believe in chopping a man’s hand off for committing robbery, why does it believe that castration, surgical or chemical, is a valid punishment for rape?
What do you think?