It is pretty well known that there has been an enormous change for the better in the lives of the working-class people over the last century. We’ve all read about the long hours, terrible working conditions, and low pay that people endured in the 19th century and beyond. The question is what was the primary cause of the change that brought about the better conditions that we have today. Generally, I’ve seen it attributed to the struggles of labor leaders and other reform elements. Which undeniably had effect. But it would seem to me that it might be possible that the primary mover was simply an increase in worker productivity, that made the improvements economically feasible, and ensured the success of what would have otherwise been a futile struggle.
Firstly, I wonder about where all the money was going. We know that many industrial leaders - the “robber barons” - amassed great wealth while squeezing the last penny out of their poor employees. But while a compelling story on the individual level, such facts are often misleading with regards to their impact on the big picture. Generally, these super-rich people were (and are) so few in number, that even if their wealth would have been redistributed in a more equitable way it would not have made a substantial difference in the lives of the overwhelming majority of poorer people. If this is true (and unfortunately I don’t have any figures to back it up) the primary reason for the poverty of these workers would have to be the fact that they simply were not producing enough wealth.
Further, no one was forcing any person into any particular job. Every guy in a sweatshop or coal mine could have taken a better job if one was available. Apparently nothing was. Or they could have become self-employed. This too suggests to me that it simply was not practical to expect to work under conditions that were substantially better.
So what changed? Likely what changed was the advance of technology, which vastly improved worker productivity. At this point (not one specific point - a gradual change), it became possible to produce enough to justify decent working wages even by working shorter hours.
(I’m not sure how much this applies to the improvements in safety. I imagine it would apply somewhat, to the extent that improvements in safety tend to rob efficiency somewhat. But also, there have been vast strides in non-worker safety, and health in general. I imagine this might make people less tolerant of workplace safety lapses as well.)
Is this nonsense? Obvious? Thoughts, please.
Seriously, capital accumulation occurs when there is saving in the economy and investment in excess of what is required to replace the existing capital stock. It doesn’t necessarily require an increase in productivity/ change in technology, although of course that may drive increased investment for the reasons you suggest.