I got into a debate with a friend tonight and I offhandedly mentioned that now is one of the relatively few times in modern history that almost every male stands a reasonable chance of attracting a spouse and having children if they so desired. In olden times, rulers and aristocracy would have large harems which would reduce the pool of available women for the rest of the people. Ordinary males had to make do with prostitutes.
Is this accurate or am I mistaken? What were the proportions of men forming a long term pairing with one or multiple woman and having the potential for children in different times and places?