Circa when did the word Indian came be used for native populations ?

And one more thing. There was no demonym in the Americas prior to Columbus that meant “Native American”. Over in Europe, people had words to describe people from Europe, Europeans, or Christians, or Westerners. That was because they knew there were other regions of the world out there where people were different. There was Africa, and Asia (understood as everything east of the Bosporus), and India, and China.

But there was no such understanding in the Americas in pre-Columbian times. They would think of themselves as their particular ethnic group or nation or tribe or family. It wasn’t until much later that Native Americans had the need to describe “Native people from the Americas as opposed to Europeans and Africans”, and when they did they mostly just used the term “Indian”.

For an example the other way, all over Asia it’s very common for the local word for “European” to be some variation on “Farang” or “Frank”. If a white guy tried to explain to a Thai shopkeeper that he’s not French, he’s Irish, the shopkeeper would be confused. And that’s because although the origin of the word “Farang” means “Frank”, that’s not what the word means in Thailand today, it means “White Person”. But at least the Franks really were European.

From the Online Etymology Dictionary.