I believe it is still generally believed that all the civilizations (meaning, roughly, literate, centrally organized, city building cultures) of the Old World can trace their “inspiration” back to ancient Sumeria (or possibly Egypt). That is to say, although different peoples implemented it in very different ways, the idea that it is possible to record speech through markings, and that this makes it possible to organize your society on a large scale (and that it is advantageous to do so) originated in Sumeria and spread from there.
If this is a badly outdated view, I am sure someone will tell me.
My question, however, is what happened in the New World. As I understand it, the idea of civilization arose independently in Mesoamerica, probably starting with the Olmecs (although I am not sure whether they had a writing system, or if that arose later). But what about Peruvian civilization, the Incas? (I believe there is evidence of some other quite advanced cultures in the Andean region before the Incas, but I do not know how advanced.) Did the “idea” of civilization somehow spread from Mesoamerica to the Andean region, or did Andean civilization have an entirely independent origin? (Or have we no idea?)
I hope this will not degenerate in a debate about what counts as a civilization. Can we stipulate that Maya, Aztecs, Incas, Sumerians, Babylonians, Egyptians, Indians, Chinese, Greeks, Romans, and modern "Westerners" all had or have civilizations, but that preliterate tribal nomads and agriculturalists did and do not (not that there's anything wrong with that)?