I watched today as a lone Congressman (Massie-R, Kentucky) attempted to force a recorded vote on the stimulus bill. You can watch it here:
I get the procedural rule that a sufficient number of Congresspeople must arise to sustain a demand for a voice vote. But then he suggests the absence of a quorum.
The chair then declares that a quorum is present and sustains the voice vote. How can he count to 218 that fast? Did I miss something?
You missed the part where Massie had telegraphed his quorum call before the vote ever happened. They didn’t have to count again. They had already counted and knew who was present.
How does that work? Say AOC sent an email to the Acting Speaker saying that she would be there for the vote. How does the Speaker know she really is there without finding her in the crowd?
Not suggesting anyone would lie, but they could have been delayed. Suggesting the absence of a quorum, at least in my mind, means that the roll call has to be read or otherwise contemporaneously determine there is a quorum there.
What if Massie had appealed from the decision of the chair on his quorum ruling? Would that have been a roll call vote?
It is not like they are unable to count people that physically showed up until the totally expected quorum call is made. Why does something like counting 5 minutes before and a quick check with staffers posted at the doors to make sure nobody left not seem accurate?
Yes, he must do an actual count. But he doesn’t have to do it out loud. And the quorum call cannot be taken unless the results of the count he took indicated that there was no quorum.
The count was being done as members gathered in the chamber and the galleries (to maintain social distancing.) When the sufficient number arrived, a note was given to Pelosi to finish the procedure.