I just saw on TV that a man who was convicted of domestic violence had 30 some guns.
It has nothing to do with my question but it seems he held off police at gunpoint. Thats how they found the guns.
It is a federal law that he cannot own guns because of his domestic abuse conviction. That I can understand only if he used one in his abuse.
I’m sure someone will take exception to that statement. And I welcome that.
My question is more of a if he does why don’t they.
If police use violence in arresting someone they don’t lose their right to own guns.
This is a armed trained person that gets rough with a most of the time unarmed person. Sure sometimes they put up a struggle. And I see why and agree with them getting rough in those situations.
I sometimes watch Cops on TV. It really pises me off at the way they handle most of the arrestees. Usually they are thrown to the ground and very roughly handcuffed.Sometimes they are then roughly pulled ,pushed ,shoved or thrown into the cop car.And they were in handcuffs.
I also understand the adrenaline rush they go through. So much more of a reason to be held responsible.
So why shouldn’t they lose their gun rights if they are charged and convicted of abuse?