Aangelica and others, thanks for your patience.
Ok, now I’m really confused. You say “this exception” is carved out for architects, but I don’t see any exception carved out, I just see permission given for photography of architecture in the public space. There’s that word "if ":
If “the building in which the work is embodied is located in or ordinarily visible from a public place”, then you can’t prevent it. There’s no “else”. “Else what?” Else could be anything, right? Else could be “well you could try suing over copyright but there’s no guarantee” or it could be “you can prevent people from taking and publishing photos in all cases” or it could be “If you’re a martian, you are allowed to photograph on private property, everyone else can’t”, or it could be “If you’re the owner you can photograph your own building and sell the photos without permission, but anyone else can’t” or any number of other scenarios.
There’s no other clause in this copyright law giving an architect the right to deny people the right to make a 2D picture of the building as part of a private landscape. I always thought the law has to spell out rights, you can’t assume them. It’s spelled out that people can’t copy architecture plans, and that people can’t copy the execution of those plans (the building), but the image of the building… well the only thing the law says is that if you’re the architecture copyright holder you can’t sue someone if they make a picture from the public way. Doesn’t that leave a big hole?
Several people, including you, have stated here: that the purpose of the clause is to make it clear that people have permission to photograph from the public way and doesn’t say much else. The above post now seems to contradict that logic. I am ONLY talking about permissions in the context of copyright law and architecture, not trespassing, not contractual agreements, right of publicity, trademark, or any other reason you might not be allowed to photograph something or someone in a non-public space. You skirted the issue by stating that building owners always get permission in their contract with the architect, but let’s assume they don’t.
Perhaps the reason I am confused is that you are looking at this in a practical sense, but I want to understand the theoretical underpinnings.
Here’s the big question: Can the law “imply” some rule by stating only cases where that rule doesn’t apply without stating the rule directly?
Let me give you another example, on another board someone said that you can’t photograph animals in certain zoos because structures visible in the background may be copyrighted, and that most zoos are not public places.
so two questions arose:
- Is a zoo a public place if it’s not owned by the government?
- If a zoo is not a public place, does it mean you can’t photograph any animal if there’s a designed structure in the background.?
Assume the zoo has not explicitely forbidden photography ahead of time.
So this is a practical question but I really wanted to know the answer to the “big question” I asked above.