Corporate donation restrictions before McCain/Feingold?

Factual Questions
1

I feel a short introduction is in order: I am a 42 year old male who considers himself a moderate Democrat. I spent most of my voting life as an Independent. As my knowledge grew of the modern Republican party, I registered Democrat. That said, I think most politicians are at least a little corrupt.

I have read the threads here regarding the recent SCOTUS decision on Citizens United. I tend to agree with Greenwald’s analysis (from Slate). I was linked to that from this thread.

I am currently in a debate with a much more liberal person than I. He thinks this SCOTUS decision is extremely dangerous.

I am not asking for debate, or else I would have posted in the appropriate forum. All I want to know is, were there any corporate campaign finance restrictions before McCain/Feingold? If so what were they?

I am tiring of the doom coming from the most liberal sect of my party. M/F was enacted in 2002. Why didn’t the corporations take over before then?

Anyway, I am horrible at grammar, my thoughts can be convoluted but I am willing to learn. Been lurking here quite awhile and I must say to any nitpickers- you have a new target.

:slight_smile:

Regardless, my aim is stamp out my own ignorance. I am open-minded if a bit awkward.

Thanks in advance for any responses.

2

Yes, corporate campaign contributions to federal political candidates have been banned since the Tillman Act of 1907. That ban is still in place. McCain-Feingold extended the ban to direct corporate expenditure on communication which mentioned federal candidates by name during a window before the election. That extension has now been struck down.

3

Austin v. Michigan Chamber of Commerce and McConnell v. FEC were struck down as well, I believe.

I am still honing my ‘skills’ at internet research, so please excuse my pace.

Thanks again. :slight_smile: