This is a very interesting question. The answer in the end turns out to be yes, theoretically, but the effect may not be detectable.
The earth is almost a rigid body. If it were completely rigid, the question would be moot because earthquakes, which are the release of stored energy, cannot occur in a rigid body. A rigid body cannot store the strain energy that is needed to drive an earthquake. Also, the mass of a rigid body is fixed in its distribution.
On the other hand, if a body were not at all rigid, like a blob of liquid or a cloud of gas, then the question would also be moot. The points in a non-rigid body can all do their own thing, so as a whole, the body has no unique angular velocity. It would be impossible to talk about changes in the rotation because the rotation could not be meaningfully defined.
But the earth is flexible enough that it can have internal strain energy that can lead to internal rearrangements, yet stiff enough that it still keeps its basic shape, which permits a reasonable, though not exact, definition of its rotation (angular velocity). Let the “rotation of the earth” be defined as the length of the day at a particular location.
The only way to change the angular velocity of an (almost) rigid body is to apply an external torque or change the distribution of mass. An earthquake is a release of internal forces, so it can’t generate an external torque. Any forces involved would be balanced out in equal and opposite pairs. However, an earthquake would cause movement of the crust and oceans, which would redistribute the mass of the earth and could cause a change or irregularity in the length of the day. Whether this would be detectable or even above the “noise level” generated by other routine rearrangements of the earth’s mass like the tides, I don’t know.
Another way an earthquake could affect the rotation is by generating local angular momentum through movement of the crust or ocean water. The angular motion would bounce around and eventually damp out.
In short, I see no theoretical reason why a powerful earthquake couldn’t affect the rotation of the earth, taking “rotation” to mean the exact length of the day.
I wonder whether the guy who was quoted had a particular observation or piece of data in mind when he said the rotation of the earth was affected. I’m not a geophysicist, so I don’t know exactly which assumptions they work under, how they exactly define “the rotation of the earth”, etc.