Court/legal costs question

Hypothetical scenario:

I am on trial in a civil matter. The plaintiff is late to the trial and the judge fines him in contempt of court to the sum of £x. Trial proceeds and the judge rules in the plaintiffs favour, the judge rules that I am required to pay damages and, as the loser in the case, the court costs.

So - would I be required to pay the fine put on the plaintiff for being late as part of the court costs?

No. A fine for contempt is not a taxable cost in any jurisdiction with which I am familiar.
*
E.g.,*

http://www.legislature.mi.gov/(ufakxs45sm5yij454cpo0q55)/mileg.aspx?page=GetMCLDocument&objectname=mcl-600-2405

California has a statute that lists various categories of recoverable costs (e.g., filing fees, photocopies of exhibits, etc.). It also has a “catch-all” provision for “other reasonable costs” pursuant to a separate motion the prevailing party would have to file to recover.

I don’t think a contempt charge is on the list of automatically recoverable costs, and I don’t think the court would grant a motion requesting payment of contempt charges as a “reasonable cost” to be paid by the losing party.

I should add that the prevailing party may attempt to claim the contempt charge in its papers for automatic cost recovery. The paper the prevailing party files to recover costs is an itemization of claimed recoverable costs. Once the itemization is filed and served, the burden is on the losing party to file a motion to “tax” the improperly claimed cost off the list.

http://www.leginfo.ca.gov/cgi-bin/waisgate?WAISdocID=9031184515+0+0+0&WAISaction=retrieve

While it might be possible for a party to blindside another party by taking advantage of the procedure for taxing costs, a fine for contempt just does not fit into the statutory scheme. Subsection (2) specifically says: " Allowable costs shall be** reasonably necessary to the conduct of the litigation** rather than merely convenient or beneficial to its preparation." (Emphasis added.)

A fine for contempt is a punishment.

http://resources.lawinfo.com/index.cfm?action=dictionary&show=C

It is collateral to the merits of the case, and is usually imposed on a party for interfering with the conduct of the litigation. So it would be very difficult for a party to convince a court that a contempt fine was necessary to the conduct of the litigation. Not to mention, shifting fines and punitive damages (e.g., through insurance) is generally held to violate public policy. But see, http://www.andersonkill.com/publications/pa/pdf/199512.pdf (pdf) (arguing clause excluding coverage for fines and penalties should not exclude punitive damage coverage).

Guys, the OP is in the U.K., so American cites

I can’t give a cite, but I used to do work for the magistrates courts, and the fine is actually unrelated to the settlement of the case; it is not a cost of the court case. They are seperate matters.

All good stuff though - thanks everyone. Basically checking how accurate a scene in a book I read was, this confirms my thinking that it’s not what happens in reality.

I think this provision and others found here and here (parts 43-48) apply to the taxation of costs in (at least in England and Wales?). It looks like these rules give the court a lot of discretion in taxing costs. I doubt it would change the results, but the analysis would be different. I’d be interested in hearing a UK lawyer’s analysis of the OP.