Not sure if this should be GD or GQ: moderator move if necessary.
The grade school explanation of the stock market crash of 1929 goes like this: people bought stock during the 1920s in the expectation that it’s value would go up and they could later sell it at a profit. This became a self-fullfilling prophecy- a “bubble”. This was aided by the fact that at the time people could buy stock on 10% margin- they only had to pay 10% of the price up front, and could owe the rest, which they could easily repay when they sold the stock at a profit. Both people and banks “invested” money in stocks that by the end of the decade were vastly inflated in price beyond anything that the issuing companies’ actual earnings would justify. Eventually, people got nervous and started selling stock in a self-accellerating “crash”. People who had invested all their savings in stock saw their value of their investment evaporate. Banks that had loaned money to buy stock or bought stock themselves had nothing but worthless paper as assets. When depositors went to get their money out of the bank, the bank had little actual cash to give them. This sparked “runs” on banks, similar to the stock panic. Banks went under when they had no assets left and those who had deposited money in the banks lost their savings. With the disappearence of vast sums of money, the economy was disrupted, businesses failed, people were out of work, and the Great Depression lasted ten years.
My question is, where did the money go? That is, how could vast sums of money simply cease to exist? In every transaction where stock was bought, it had to be payed for somehow; where did that payment go to? If Mr. Smith bought Acme Amalgamated stock at $10 dollars a share, and after the crash AA stock was worth 10 cents a share, what happened to the other $9.90 that Smith payed out? Did Acme themselves invest in other stock? But then what did the other company do with the money? Maybe a handfull of lucky bastards had the foresight to sell short at exactly the right time, but that doesn’t account for more than a tiny fraction of the wealth tied up in stock. Did the companies spend stock revenue on executive compensation? Invest in expansion that left them overequipped for the depressed demand of the 1930s? Was the money simply spent, and dispersed in the economic equivalent of entropy?