WRT to my last comment, what I was hinting at is that I don’t see anything about the dealership offering them anything other then the replacement car and $4k. Little Nemo said the dealership gave them $60k, if that was the case then I would suggest they stop talking and walk away, but I don’t think that’s happened.
Apparently, the facts of the case aren’t entirely open-and-shut, as the rogue employee hasn’t been charged (as of the article cited by OP) with auto theft. He said he had dealership’s owner’s permission to take the car. Dealership owner, I presume, begs to differ. So that point seems to be still in contention.
Is it? The employee was not acting within the course and scope of employment. That said, if they’re liable if an unrelated party steals a car from their party, then it doesn’t matter who the thief is.
Apples to Oranges.
What if you took you stayed at a hotel overnight and the hotel had valet parking. You toss the valet your keys and he parks it in the underground garage. The next morning when you leave he pulls your car out, and you find that it’s keyed all the way around and three of the windows are smashed. Let’s further say that one of the employees stopped in last night to pick something up that he left there last night and did it for fun.
Tough luck huh. Hope your insurance is up to date.
That’s getting off track because it wasn’t an unrelated party. It was an employee.
At the mall, you don’t hand over your keys to anyone or grant them access to the car.
We all know it was an employee. That may not matter if the dealership is liable regardless.
However, if the dealership is not liable just by virtue of possessing the vehicle, the employee was not acting on behalf of the employer. Thus, it is not necessarily obvious that the employer is liable. I’m asking someone to explain how that works.
:rolleyes:
What is the basis of this ridiculous assertion?
I dunno, I’d just like to see the law that says the dealer would be responsible for damage incurred on the stolen vehicle. Unless there was negligence involved, they normally wouldn’t be at fault for a stolen vehicle no matter who steals it.
You’re right. The article said the couple paid $60,000 for the car when they bought it. The figure apparently stuck in my mind.
But my basic argument remains. The insurer paid the couple what it felt was the market value and apparently didn’t seek money from the dealership. That to me is strong evidence that the dealership is not legally liable.
And they also are not responsible for anything their employee does. If he had broken into his neighbour’s house in the middle of the night and stolen their TV, nobody would be suggesting the dealer was liable because the guy worked for them.
So any lawsuit is going to have to be based on the argument that the dealership was negligent in its security and didn’t take reasonable steps to ensure its employees didn’t break in to the place after hours. I’m not saying this is impossible but it’s not an automatic win for the couple.
Of course the dealership would not be liable if the guy burgled a house. But the ex-employee had access to the dealership by virtue of being an employee. The thief would not have know that car was there, and would not have known specifically how to steal it were he not employed there. In any case, that the ex-employee did steal a car is de facto evidence their security was not up to snuff.
When the owner of the car turned over the keys to the dealership, a bailment is created. From Wiki:
Under Delaware law:
So is the dealership liable?
ISTM (IANAL) that a person who delivers his car to a dealership has a reasonable expectation that his car will not be damaged while in the dealer’s care. Since the car was in the dealer’s care, it seems reasonable that the dealer is responsible for returning the car undamaged, or replacing the car if it is damaged. If the dealer carries insurance to cover damages that may happen, then that implies that the dealer accepts responsibility. If the dealer does not carry enough insurance, that doesn’t negate his responsibility. IMO.
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I disagree. If I represented the owners, I’d consider an action for conversion. I’d likely plead in the alternative for negligence and whatever else comes to mind.
The amount they got from their insurer is their issue. The payout was likely what you estimate, paid to the lienholder, who gave them what was left. But the owners treated the car like a prized future classic - it had just 1,200 miles on it (50 miles/month means it likely just went to car shows) and was in like new condition, rather than your typical 2 year old car with 25k miles. They can get another Camaro with the settlement, but they can’t get one just like their car was, even with the $4k goodwill money the dealer offered.
All the mention of how they sold two classics to get it means nothing, though I wonder why they financed the new car after selling a 69 SSto get it - NADA puts a base Camaro SS at over $100k :dubious:.
No. The insurance company may well sue for anything the owners get from the dealer…
They told the insurance company that no one else was liable !
So in fact now the insurance company can get all the payout back, since the owners now say the dealer is responsible…
Which assertion? I made more then one.
I so hopelessly confused I’m going to write off this thread. They owned two Camaros, one an all-time classic prize, sold those to buy one that is a modern road-monster but not likely to break any collectible records, financed it even though their sales proceeds should have put them way into the black, marginally insured the car, drove it only as a “show car” or something, left it with a dealer, complained when full replacement value plus some cash wasn’t enough… but “can’t afford another car”?
I give up. Ya can’t fix stupid… and the very fact that it’s a Chebby says everything needing saying. Now, if they’d traded up to a Boss 302 or Shelby 500… 
Interesting. I’ll admit I wasn’t aware of this legal principle. But reading the article, it seems clear that two elements are indisputable - the couple clearly owned the car and the car was clearly damaged. So the issue will be decided based on whether the dealership committed a wrongful act.
I assume there’s no element of intent needed - I don’t think anyone’s arguing that the dealership intended for the car to be stolen. So what standard needs to be met to hold the dealership liable for the theft?
I’m guessing Oakminster has problems with your implication that lawyers were creating this situation or making it worse.
I won’t dispute that there may be times when lawyers seek to create a legal dispute where none existed. But there’s no evidence that’s the case here. All of the parties here - the couple, the dealership, the thief, and the insurer - became involved without any lawyer needed to bring them together. And the issues of the dispute developed without any lawyer needed to bring them up. This is not a case of “lawyers got us into this mess”. But now that the parties have created a legal dispute without help from any lawyers, the sensible thing is for them to bring lawyers in on it.
Translation:
Take off and nuke it from orbit…