Nobody disputes that the estate is responsible for the debt. The insurance payment is not part of the estate. For any entity with a claim against an estate to attempt to convince someone that they are required to use non-estate assets to settle the debt is borderline fraud.
What, by dying?
Looks to me like you’re describing a fun and easy way to fuck over one’s relatives if one is contemplating suicide: take out multiple credit cards, get maximum cash advances on all of them, hold a money bonfire, kill self, leave economic chaos in your wake.
The bolded words are in conflict, I think. If the non-estate funds are not required to be used for such a purpose, the action is clearly fraud, on account of being a lie.
Okay, so we agree that she does not legally owe the CC company any money? Good.
So morally, I’m going to go with, let’s see … She’s a widow with a young child. How can you take food from their table? WON’T SOMEBODY THINK OF THE CHITLINS!
But why? It’s not like the CC company was somehow hoodwinked by the customer. They know the law very well, knew that if they extended credit to this person and he died, they’d only legal be able to collect a debt from the estate, and they freely and willingly chose to take on that risk. Why should the widow have a moral obligation to mitigate the risk they were willing to take?
Becuase it is immoral to collect a debt from an impoverished person when the impoverished person did not agree to the terms of the debt, when forgiving/writing off the debt will be trivial for the creditor, and paying the debt will be a major hardship to the impoverished person.
In other news I have spoken to the Great Oz and he has agreed to provide you with the items you need, not least of which is a heart.
Because the husband made a commitment, and some of the benefit of that commitment went to the wife.
If I shoplift groceries and my wife and I eat them, are you saying that my wife got no benefit from my theft because the store figures in the cost of shoplifting when they price their food?
No, I’m trying to explain (in small words) why the wife is morally obligated to cover a portion of her husband’s debts, regardless of whether she is legally obligated to.
So if the husband played the horses and lost big time to the local bookie and now that bookie is coming to the widow to collect–you are okay with that? I bet she got some benefit of that as well right?
But we don’t expect the widow to bear the price of her husband personal debts, whether they are credit card debts, or gambling debts do we? She didn’t place a bet, nor did she use the credit cards.
The credit card company has a legal avenue to collect monies owed, IF they choose to explore that avenue. Leaning on the widow, whether by the bookie or the credit card company is the morally wrong issue in this scenario in my opinion.
I have two credit cards, one joint and one personal. My wife gets ZERO benefit from things on my personal card and thus she should have no moral or legal obligation for my debts. Why should she? My joint card I would agree she has an obligation to pay.
Anyway, as I said, they were not well off. The life insurance policy was small with just little left over after covering the funeral. She, not the estate, was the beneficiary. They had little to no savings as her husband had been laid off 4 months ago and they were living on her salary alone. Luckily, he was covered under her insurance or his illness would have bankrupted them. As is, she’s going to move into the other side of her grandmother’s duplex and try to sell the house as they are upside down on the mortgage and she can no longer afford the monthly payment on her own. The did have joint credit cards which she *is *paying. I didn’t pry and ask how much was on his credit cards or what he used them for so I can’t make a call as to whether she’s morally obligated to pay them off. I do know that she asked for donations for her son’s education in lieu of flowers so she’s clearly worried about the future.