Did Gore "shoot" himself in the ballot box?

Phrase it either way you like. I’m simply looking for the question to be addressed honestly.

That only works logically if you don’t acknowledge that there is also a personal freedom from getting killed. The problem is balancing personal freedoms against each other, and it is not resolved by claiming one’s own choice of freedoms trumps everyone else’s. People can’t live together that way.

My answer is that your question is irrelevant. Liberty cannot be encroached in the name of safety. The police are not commissioned to protect you, and they would not do so even if all guns were banned. You are responsible to provide your own safety. Problem is, the government makes it illegal for you to do so, thereby giving a firm advantage to the criminal.

Don’t feel bad though…Thomas Jefferson also addressed your question, though in a nonspecific way:

And I agree with him.

Elvis:

I didn’t “duck the question”. It is a value judgement rendered by the larger society contending with the issue. Unlike HCI, I don’t pretend to speak for the rest of my fellow citizens by offering up my opinion as fact. If you want opinions, w can ask the Mods. to move this to IMHO (where the Mods. there will immediately boot it right back over to GD)

“How many homicides are acceptable” and “How many firearm homicides are acceptable” within any given period are two separate questions, and I’m not entirely sure that you are distinguishing the two. You do realize the firearm homicides comprise, at the most, approx. 75% of total homicides, yes? The spike is around the 17-19 y/o age group.

And Uncle Beer is entirely correct that firearm suicides should be separated from firearm fatality stats. If you look at Japan and Norway, each have civillian ownership/private possession of firearms at less than 1% of the population, yet Japan has age-adjusted suicide rates equal to the U.S.A., and Norway’s is higher (I forget the numbers, but can provide them if you so desire; somewhere around 30%+ higher, IIRC). How can you account for that? Two non-gun owning societies with non-gun suicide rates equal to and higher than the U.S.A.?

My opinion: it ain’t the guns. If someone wants to die badly enough, they will find a way, regardless. Numbers at least nominally support that theory, but it ain’t set in concrete.

The prohibition is against killing for pleasure and profit, and derives from the Old Testament (religious types can quote you chapter and verse, as they have before; suffice to say that for me, it’s good enough to know that it’s there). But there is no “sin” or prohibition against using force, perhaps even lethal force, for self defense or defense of others.

There is already embodied w/in our laws (state mostly) mechanism to ensure that if you (generic) take a persons life w/o justifiable reason, then you are tried for manslaughter or worse. Ever heard of the term “justifiable homicide”?

One of the legal aspects stressed in my Concealed Carry class (required by Texas law before issuance of a permit) was the legal and justifiable use of force. Using various common scenarios, we learned when we would be legally justified, and when our asses would fry.

Another Easy One From H.C.I.: The Myth of The Second Amendment

Hard to fight the truth.

Uhm…no. We don’t.

Ain’t it easy to villify your enemy by putting words in their mouth(s)?

From Merriam-Webster:

Also, from 10 USC, Ch. 13., sec. 311

Some thoughts from the people who drafted the Constitution and the Bill of Rights:

Jefferson:

Washington:

Hamilton:

Lee:

Mason:

Adams (Sam)

And finally, a summary from U.S. v. Miller the oft-misquoted “benchmark” case H.C.I. claims proves that they are right. You can actually read it for yourself at United States v. Miller, at FindLaw

Kind of hard to make a case for something when you aren’t present to make an argument.

Note the narrow ruling here; they’re talking about the efficacy and utility of a double-barreled shotgun. The “absence of evidence” is because of “No appearance for appellees.”

So, we have a Supreme Court ruling that the Militia is the people, and are expected to provide their own arms when called for service.

I skipped the stuff in between the previous and the next sentence; it is a discourse on the sort of arms the militia were expected to provide, as of the time of the writing of the Constitution and the Bill of Rights.

Kind of a one-sided argument, but it only narowly addressed the “double-barreled shotgun” question, and didn’t explicitly rule, one-way-or-another, on the 2nd Amendment.

Define irony: someone accuses another of “ducking the question” when he still won’t defend his assertion that handguns are “useless” for hunting.

And since when did our rights become “needs” based?

A little light reading, courtesy of the talk.politics.guns FAQ:

From the United States Constitution (U.S.C.), Amendment II:

And also from Article I, sec. 8 (clauses 15 and 16, commonly
referred to as “the militia clauses”) – Powers of Congress:

And from Article II, sec. 2 (clause 1) – President to be
Commander-in-Chief.

And from the U.S. Code Annotated (U.S.C.A.) title 10 sec. 311 (as amended Nov. 30, 1993) [relating to the definition of militia]

And from the U.S.C.A. title 32 sect. 101 (as amended Sep. 29, 1988) [relating to the establishment of the National Guard]

Also from the Talk Politics Guns FAQ:

Regarding the odd punctuation in the Second Amendment:

And some words on the subject of whether the Second Amendment application of “the people” means the same as it does in the other Amendments:

This is just a very small portion of the overall text. Lots of interesting points in there…

Even though the SC has not given a unequivical answer to the question of whether the right to bear arms is personal or collective. That doesn’t mean that this is still considered to be an open question by the legal community in general.

It is considered a relatively settled matter of law that the right to bear arms is collective, not personal. The decision in US v. Miller makes no sense if this is a personal right, the fact that the SC did not specifically address the question is irrelevant. Their decision rules out a literal interpretation of the world ‘people’ to mean ‘individual’.

ExTank and Anthricite, you are pissing into the wind here. Given the PR might of the NRA, I have no doubt that you can find thousands of quotes that wish otherwise. But the members of the legal community who actually agree with them are the minority.

ExTank I asked this very question a few months ago in another thread, and you mislead me. I applaud your consistency, but I’ve done my own research since then.

Also, ExTank I’m disappointed that you choose to hijack your own novel thread idea idea back into the tired old debate that really already been decided against you by the SC.

Is what you are saying that one, single decision, against all history and historical basis, is what it takes to re-define the words “the people” for one embarassing Amendment?

Outside of that very odd (IMO) decision of the SC, what historical basis is there when looking at the writing of the Constitution to determine that it is not a personal right? What real evidence is there to assume that it was not meant to be directed towards the individual?

No. Legal scholars who believe it’s an individual right are in the vast majority. Below are cites of law review articles from 1980-1997 that support the individual right view.

Forgive the crosspost, I couldn’t decide which thread to put this in, so I put it in both.

No problem. That is, provided you acknowledge that they were also used to RESIST oppression.

Who gets the credit for building a house - the hammer, or the carpenter wielding it? Who carved the David statue - Michaelangelo, or his chisel? Who painted The Last Supper - was it Da Vinci or his paintbrush? Who was guilty for so many killings and eating the victims - Jeffrey Dahmer or his fork?

Pretty silly questions, right? And when somebody is stabbed brutally, it’s a crime committed by a violent or deranged person. But when sombody is shot to death, it’s a shooting, not a crime committed by a sick person. Why?

No, as has been ably pointed out already, well-regulated in that context does not mean under government control. The Army was already under government control, and the militia were civilian citizens fighting with their own weapons for defense of country.

On the contrary, if you could walk up to an armorer in 1776 and tell him you want your rifle regulated, do you think he would give you some rules telling you whether and where you could use it? No, he would sight it in, make sure the action is oiled and working properly, etc. “Well-Regulated” in the sense used in the Constitution means properly equipped.

A well-regulated militia is the whole of the people capable of bearing arms, properly equipped, willing and able to fight.

I invite you to read this article, which is testimony before the Senate by Professor Eugene Volokh of the UCLA school of law.

Some excerpts:

Additionally, Prof. Volokh had this to say on “Well-regulated”:

And

Can anybody seriously make the claim that this says only people employed by newspapers may publish their sentiments?

How about this one?

I really don’t see how this is so difficult to understand. Because of X, Right Y shall not be infringed. X does not Qualify Y, it explains it.

And since gun control advocates so enjoy saying how “Everybody knows” that the Supreme Court has consistently ruled that the 2nd Amendment is a collective right, and that the weight of law is behind that statement (Tejota, are you paying attention?), I for one would like to see some citations for that statement now. I’m tired of citing case after case of Supreme Court decisions that simply get ignored by the opposition because they don’t support their point of view.

So I’m looking forward to what you guys can come up with. And I don’t mean links to HCI or the Brady site. Show me Court decisions.

I too am waiting for historical evidence that shows that the intent of the Founders and writers of the Constitution was to refer to the “the People” collectively in just that ol’ embarassing Second Amendment.

I did. With hard numbers. Just an hour and a half before you made this statement. Scroll up and read. I’ve also answered this question in more than one other debate on this board. I also note that you have failed to answer this question yourself. Please do so or I shall be forced to conclude you are not debating in good faith. And while you’re at it, I, too, would like to see the historical evidence that Anthracite, and others, are asking for.

The ball’s in your court.

UncleBeer, are you referring to your post that seems to suggest (A) 605 murders per year aren’t criminal-vs.-criminal, and (B) 12,000-odd others are acceptable because the victims are, well, criminals and therefore must have deserved to die? It wasn’t clear that you meant to quote those rates as being “acceptable”. If so, I’d like to hear you explain the moral underpinning for it. My intention in asking was to understand how gun-rights advocates, yourself obviously included, can deal with the rights-vs.-rights dilemma other than with denial, and I’m still waiting.

As for “historical evidence” of the Founding Fathers’ intentions, read the friggin’ Constitution - just the first 3 words are enough. Once you’ve digested that, the rest of the Preamble makes a good read. Then you’ll be ready to possibly digest the entire Second Amendment.

The cites provided above by Anthracite are all later commentary, written as advocacy for a particular political position. Some evidence that you 2 have considered other views, and even hold your own enough to explain them succinctly, would be welcome, but by now is not expected.

Joe_Cool, if the police are NOT there to provide protection, what do you think their job is? Please.

Tejota, I fear we’re both wasting our time here with people who do not seem interested in even trying to understand differing views, much less admit any possible reasonability to them. But when even the moderator takes that position to the extent of accusing those who disagree with him of failure to use “good faith”, it’s time to let go.

Is this going to be what you do every time someone provides a Supreme Court citation which demonstrates that you are incorrect? I mean, I guess the presumption is that we should listen to you rather than to them, right?

If the right to own guns is individual, how come the D.C. gun ban (that the pro-gun side of the issue regularly lampoons) is still in effect? (It is, right? Hadn’t heard of its repeal.)

It’s hard to believe the NRA wouldn’t have taken that one on if they felt they had a winning hand.

Joe Cool, you asked:

Because if someone’s coming at me from a few yards away with a knife, a bludgeon, or whatever, I as an unarmed and only moderately fit middle-aged guy, have an incredible array of options to keep myself alive. I can try to outrun my assailant; I can grab lamps and chairs (if indoors) or tree limbs (outside), and use them to fend him off or bludgeon him; I can climb a tree and kick at him from above if he tries to climb up to kill me. I’m pretty comfortable with my survival chances in such a situation.

If they’ve got a gun, anything I do depends on their being unable to use the gun proficiently; all I can do is try to present an erratically moving target until I can get something solid in between me and my assailant. And if his reflexes are good enough to keep his gun pointed at me as I try to find cover, or if he’s just plain lucky enough to pull the trigger while I’m on a line with the gun barrel, I’m dead.

I have to ascribe my drastically different survival chances in these two scenarios to the gun. So, yes, it’s at least in significant part a gun killing.

Anybody know the name of the guy who opened the bomb bay at Hiroshima, or Nagasaki? Of course not: it was the bomb that killed. Consider the gun to be one nontrivial step on the spectrum from a knife to atomic weaponry.

No. That’s not the post I’m referring to. You said at 4:54pm on 8/22 “I’m simply looking for the question to be addressed honestly.” I had at 3:28pm on 8/22 said

I don’t know how much more explicit I can be. And yes, criminals who have chosen to engage in violent behavior can kill as many other like-minded criminals as they care to. I really don’t give a fuck. They’be been allowed to make the free choice of what they wish to use their guns for, why should I no be allowed to have the same free choice? I’m afraid I do not see any “rights vs. rights dilemma.” Unless it the one you advocate, namely honest and peaceful (was that too Libertarian?) citizens should not be allowed to defend themselves using the same tools as their agressors. That’s the dilemma.

As for your advice we read the first three words of the Constitution, mine says “We the people, …” Seems to imply individuals rather than a collective. What’s your point? And by what process do come to the conclusion that the words, which express the reasoning process, of the originiators of the Constitution are no longer valid? That’s crazy talk.

RTF, I honestly don’t know. Lemme see if I can dig anything up. It is kinda strange.

Relative to the evidence that everyone has presented here, firing back with a simple “read the Constitution” as a rebuttal would be funny, if it weren’t so damn tragic.

Uh…no, the cites are not “all” later commentary. Several actual historical contemporary references were provided. And please present your case that we have not considered other views, or would not consider the alternative evidence (still forthcoming, I hope) as to the true intention of the writers of the “friggin’” Constitution.

It seems to me that the only way to see if we have and can consider other views on the historical basis of the creation of the Second Amendment is to present those alternative views here. So…we will wait now for those.

Well, RT, let’s be frank here (although some people will accuse me of being otherwise, then run off…) IMO it is because the NRA et al fear that the Supreme Court will rule against them, based on a perceived “liberal judicial activist slant”. Is this a valid fear? Well…IMO, perhaps not. While the SC has recently been strongly split down liberal/conservative ideologies on many cases, it seems to me that the evidence as to the true intent of the Second Amendment is really very clear and unambiguous. And if the SC rules against the evidence, and finds that the Second Amendment recognizes only a general right, or none at all…well, so be it. At least we all will know where we stand, and these endless debates can be put to rest somewhat.

On that issue, as to what the Supreme Court would decide, we could look to Printz vs. United States, from Supreme Court Reports v.117 p.2365, United States Reports, Lawyer’s Edition 2nd series v.138 p.914

Something else that occurs to me in regard to the DC handgun ban, is that it is a local law, the Constitution deals only with federal lawmaking. States and other governing bodies may be free to pass whatever legislation they wish that does not violate their own charters. There are several cities I believe that have outlawed the transfer and/or possession of handguns, Rockford, Ill comes to mind; how about NYC? What’s their deal?

Does anyone know the actual specifics of the DC law? Does it ban handgun posession outright? Or does it only ban the sale and transfer of new and/or used handguns? It’d probably be a good idea to know exactly what we’re discussing.

I’m not going to comment on the whole “guns are wonderful, and you pinkos want to take away our freedom” vs. “guns are evil and you whackos want to machine gun young children” debate, (I’m dodging that bullet <—See, joke…please don’t hurt me) but commenting on the OP, Ex-tank, wouldn’t it make sense, like BF said, that location determines your gun politics more than party? I’m I’m a democrat in a district where a lot of people have guns and are big gun fans, it would make sense for me to be pro-gun. Likewise, if I’m a Republican somewhere they hate guns, I’d probably be anti-gun.