Did Jesus Know of the Hebrew Bible?

Of course he knew of the hebrew bible. The guy was one smart dude.

If you are looking at it from a historical context (and not purely from a religious stand point) the guy used the ancient scriptures to his advantage. He and his followers made sure certain things happenned so as to fullfill prophesy and endear more people to his cause (perfect timing when entering jerusalem on palm sunday for example).

He was a shrewed man, a natural born leader, someone who knew how to manipulate the people’s beliefs so as to sway them to his cause. And he had a good message to boot. Gandhi would be a similar historical figure… was ghandi an educated man as well? I think so.

Agh! sorry for the triple post… :frowning:

Isaiah 58:11 says: “…like a spring whose waters never fail.”

This looks about like what Jesus was talking about. No comment on the belly part… a likely addition from Jesus I would presume.

I am farily sure Jesus would have known at least passable pidgen Latin. Sepphoris, the Capital of Galilee, was not more than a few kilometers from the village of his childhood. It was a Roman village, almost a city, with its own theater, villas and banks. It is speculated that the Carpenter/Builder Jesus family would probably have done quite a bit of work there.

But mainly, if we are going to take the gospel, as um gospel, for the purposes of this thread - well then he answers Pilate’s questions w/o an interpreter – & I doubt very seriously whether Pilate spoke Aramaic , or if he did would have deigned to in the situation described in the Bible.

Of course the linga franca of the eastern empire at that time was Greek, so maybe in the above I should change Latin to Greek - certainly the Apostles were preaching in Greek-speaking jewish & Gentile communities within a very few years of the crucifixition…but I am 100% sure Pontius Pilate, as procurator of equestrian rank, spoke Latin – I cannot be 100% sure he spoke Greek even tho it is very, very likley he did & I have to answer to a higher authority - the SDMB GQ community.

Josepf of Arimathea was an entirely different person, not a carpenter, not married to the Virgin Mary, not who you think he was.

I find some of the answers here, while technically correct, to be misleading. More specifically, it doesn’t matter in the least whether the biblical Jesus was educated.

Education and religion have little to do with one another. Illiterate Christian peasants from the time of Rome right through the present day were well acquainted with their Bible, even if they could not read a word of it. I have no doubt this was and is true for illiterate Muslim peasants as well.

And the Hebrew Bible would certainly have been completely familiar to every person who lived in a Jewish community. This is especially true in a nation-state that was itself almost entirely Jewish.

Every male in those days would have been taken to the synagogue from about the time he could walk. Studying the scriptures would have been a major part of his life prior to his bar mitzvah. Prayers would be said several times a day (a practice still followed by Orthodox Jews and copied over into Islam).

The idea of a prophet figure not knowing every word of the Bible, commenting on it, and preaching its meaning is oxymoronic. It would be as weird as an alien lobster coming into Jerusalem and pretending to speak meaningfully. It cannot even be considered.

Not can there be much doubt that the Hebrew Bible would have been written in Hebrew. It’s true that some Dead Sea Scrolls have been found in Aramaic and Greek, but I believe that most of these are community, commentary, and apocryphal texts rather than pieces of the torah itself.

It’s true that in today’s world Bibles may be bilingual with the local vernacular (and I suppose it is theoretically possible that a Reformed congregation in the U.S. might use an all-English text, although I have never seen one), but traditional torahs were always in Hebrew.

Now, whether the traditional texts were collected, arranged, and organized as they are today is a different issue. But their equivalent existed and were widely known, regardless of formal education.

(Not quite up to GQ standards, but) I have heard (though have failed to request a cite) that he did the grand majority of his teaching in Greek. As evidence it was pointed out that when he does use Aramaic, it’s immediately followed up by a translation (Mark 5:41, 7:34) or he gets misunderstood (Matthew 27:46, Mark 15:34) - and the use of Aramaic seems to be a departure from the ordinary (which would most likely be Greek)

The phrase in Matthew 27:46 & Mark 15:34 may be the only scriptural quote in the NT not in Greek, since it’s a direct quotation of Jesus’s words at the time, and probably (Why do I wish I didn’t sound like Dr. Weston all of a sudden?) rather memorable as Aramaic.

As another example that Jesus knew scripture very well, there’s the temptation in the wilderness (Matthew 4:1-11, Luke 4:1-13), where each time he is tempted, he refutes the devil with a verse (and even the devil cites scripture for his own purposes).

I believe the first translation of the Old Testament into Latin was done by St. Jerome in the period A.D. 390-405.

I’ll ditto this as being true today. Often the very poorest Muslims literally know the Quran backwards, they learn to recite it by heart. It may be that many of these can’t also read it.

But certainly religious instruction is an entirely different matter than general education.

I’ll expand a bit on what hauss said. Though there is no matching passage in the current OT, there are a few somewhat similar passages:
Proverbs 18:4
The words of the mouth are deep waters; the fountain of wisdom is a gushing stream.
Isaiah 44:3
For I will pour water on the thirsty land, and streams on the dry ground; I will pour my spirit upon your descendants, and my blessing on your offspring.
Isaiah 58:11
The Lord will guide you continually, and satisfy your needs in parched places, and make your bones strong; and you shall be like a watered garden, like a spring of water, whose waters never fail.

My copy of the New Oxford Annoted Bible (NRSV) suggests that while the literal Greek is “out of his belly,” a better translation of the idiom is “out of his heart.” However, it looks to me like “out of his belly” goes a bit better with the preceding verse “…let the one who believes in me drink”, only after which you’d have a fully belly of living water ready to flow.