George Carlin made this assertation in his Brain Droppings book, but the closest cite i can find online is http://www.infoplease.com/ipa/A0192524.html talkinga bout
anyone got a clue if it is accurate?
George Carlin made this assertation in his Brain Droppings book, but the closest cite i can find online is http://www.infoplease.com/ipa/A0192524.html talkinga bout
anyone got a clue if it is accurate?
Pretty much rings true with what I remember reading, which is that the term “Native American” was implemented by a government agency to refer to various groups of people who were indigenous to what is now the U.S. at the time of Europeans’ arrival. It was not intended to supplant “Indian,” “Amerind,” “Eskimo,” etc., and it was not meant to refer to individuals. You can see how anyone born in the U.S. could be called a native American, but only those whose ancestors predated Columbus’ arrival could be said to be from a native American people.
In the 1840´s, there was a Native American Party (a political party, like Libertarians or Green Party). Their main motivation/issue was opposition to immigrant influences, hence the name.
The real question is the first usage of “Native Americans” to mean the indigenous population.
My thinking is the term “Native American” should be considered as a slut. I mean, how patronizing can you get? “You lucky savage! You were fortunate enough to live in the US of A before we created it and gave you free memberships!” or some such.
Is “Native American” used for the indigenous populations of Central and South America? (Obviously I’m asking if the phrase is applied in English parlance.)
I didn’t know words could be sluts
Of course they’re sluts. You’ve got 26 letters getting together in damn-near every combination imaginable. Why do you think computer viruses are such a big problem?
anyone have actual proof of this? that was what i was looking for, and found nothing really either way.
From the OED:
So the short answer is:
It goes all the way back. Forget the 1960’s