"Different from", "different than", and now "different to", too.

I’ve been noticing recently the usage “different to”, mostly in material coming out of the UK. It’s long been my impression that “different than” has always been somewhat more common there in everyday discourse than it is in North America, but the “different to” construction is new to me. Has it always been commonly used and I just haven’t noticed it, or is it a new development? And if it is new, where did it originate?

OED suggests that it is by influence from “unlike to”, “dissimilar to”.

There is an example from 1526 “His lyght is moche different and unlyke to the lyght of the holy goost”; and from 1588 “If they could write any other language that were different vnto theirs”.

When I was at school in the UK in the 90s we were told that ‘different to’ was incorrect, and that we should use ‘similar to, different from’. As far as I recall no one had to be told not to write ‘different than’, and until now I assumed this usage was only common in America.

Perhaps you are seeing ‘different to’ more frequently because the rule I learned is no longer being taught?

OP, if you’re guilty of not noticing it before, I am too. I don’t recall ever seeing that construction until just the past couple of years, and I’ve read a fair amount by British authors.

I’ve never heard of “unlike to” It’s just “unlike.”

I’ve heard “different to” in certain contexts. Generally ones similar to “Different to what is expected.” It fits with the passive tone.

I spent about 7 years working with a primarily Australian set of coworkers, and got very used to hearing “different to.” It actually sounds almost normal to me at this point.

My coworker - a life-long local boy - says different to. Makes me crazy, but I’ll be re-retiring in a few months, so I do my best not to fling my stapler at his head. :smiley:

It’s not as grating as “difference in”.

I’ve always said different from and have the distinct impression that different to is British.

The last thread on this subject, from a couple months ago.

Including my post:

Yes, of course, nowadays. But formerly both “like” and “unlike” were used with prepositions such as to, unto, till, with, as. There are examples of “unlike to” as recent as the 19th century; e.g. Gladstone in 1879 wrote “He was very unlike to any other man”.