I did a quick search and found very little specifically about this.
In association with the latest story about DJT’s tax returns, I heard a statistic that the wealthiest Americans pay an average of 24% in Federal Income Tax.
I presume they’re talking about Effective Tax Rate.
But Effective Tax Rate reminds me of an old joke in medicine: The surgery was a complete success, but the patient died.
Sometimes, our definitions differ from the definitions used by others.
According to Pew Research:
Effective tax rates – calculated as the total income tax owed divided by ADJUSTED [emphasis added] gross income – also rise with income. On average, taxpayers making less than $30,000 paid an effective rate of 4.9% in 2015, compared with 9.2% for those making between $50,000 and under $100,000 and 27.5% for those with incomes of $2 million or more."
But if I’m looking at this correctly, a very wealthy person could earn a billion dollars, and – after extensive deductions – have a taxable income of a million dollars.
Given a Federal Income Tax liability of, say, $100,000:
[taxes paid] / [adjusted gross income] = 10.000%
[taxes paid] / [TOTAL gross income] = 0.010%
Not for nothing … our principle definition of Effective Tax Rate – the one bandied about constantly to help us understand how much the wealthiest Americans pay relative to the rest of us – seems to be … er … misleading or obfuscatory at best.
It seems to obfuscate the infinite well of deductions that a wealthy person may be able to take advantage of to reduce their taxable income and tax liability.
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Does anybody else agree/disagree with my understanding of Effective Tax Rate and its common use ?
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Has anybody seen “true” Effective Tax Rate (as I’m defining it – total paid [divided by] total made) by income … anywhere ?
I think it would be difficult to have really sincere and honest discussions about tax rates if the basic metric that’s used to help define ‘fairness’ is, itself, inherently ‘unfair.’