My ex-husband and I (who are on amiable terms) jointly own the house in which I live. We plan to sell it next year. In the meantime, I’ve agreed to lend him a sum a money to help with his application to emigrate overseas. The idea is that when we sell the house, I’ll get back the money I lent, plus suitable interest, out of his half of the proceeds from the house.
Obviously, we need to get that arrangement in writing before any money changes hands. My question is: If we write up a contract that’s mutually agreeable and both sign it in the presence of a notary, does that make it legally binding, such that if anything went wrong later, one or the other of us could sue for breach of contract? Or does it need to be drawn up by a lawyer and then signed to be binding?
I’m not expecting extensive free legal advise here (you folks wouldn’t make much of a living if you gave away all of your information for free). But a quick answer—or the firsthand view from someone who’s done this—would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks!