Thanks for sharing that article Joe it was an interesting read. Strangely, I had never considered the possibility that there could be a limit on how much aid could be usefully received, what I had in mind when I asked my question was how much could be usefully given.
I realise by reading the replies from other posters that I was not clear enough with my question. Sorry about that, maybe an example would help.
Lets say that we use 1% of our GDP on aid annually. With this level of spending our GDP grows at 4% per year.
Then suppose we increase the amount of aid we pay to 2% of the GDP. This results in our GDP shrinking by 1% per year.
Using these (made up) numbers, over a 30 year period, we would actually pay more aid by spending 1% as opposed to 2%.
Based on this idea, I conjectured that there is an optimum amount of aid that should be given. You can imagine how this would manifest itself - if we give everything we have, there is no money to invest in improving technology etc.
After doing a Google search I found that there is a government aid agency, whose objective is “to assist developing countries reduce poverty and achieve sustainable development”. I imagined that this agency would be devoted to figuring out this optimum aid amount.
The next thing that occured to me was the impact of NGOs. The government can control the aid amount precisely, unlike organisations reliant on donations. If the aid agency is already giving the optimum amount, would further donations hurt the GDP, resulting in less aid overall?
According to my little calculation, the answer is yes. But it is very simplistic, and I just made up the number for impact on GDP. However, the effect above may be the dominant one, I don’t know, hence my quesiton.
So, I was really trying to ask whether the source of NGO funds is economically sensible, not how the funds are spent. Does anyone know the answer, or of any studies on this?