You seem to think George W. Bush was the arbiter of what was legal under international alw.
It was legal to take military action against Iraq, It was not legal to remove the government, though, and I think that even you know that, even if you’ll never admit it.
Yes, it absolutely did. There is only one legal justification to attack the sovereignty of another nation, and that justification was not present with Iraq.
But the regime change was simply a by-product of the military action. And a welcome one, since international law favors democratic governments. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights says that the only legitimate government is one based on the “will of the people.” The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights says that self-determination is a human right. Clearly these did not exist in Saddam’s Iraq.
The UN Charter specifically excludes any consideration of the politics of another country’s governement as a justification for an attack on sovereignty (i.e. regime change). It’s self-defense or nothing.
He has no authority to so rule. His opinion- while certainly respected- is still an opinion. Even if the President sez someone commited a crime, it’s not so until a ruling judicial body has held a trial/hearing etc, and made a legal decision.
Which is your opinion. Again, you confuse opinion with actual legal rulings. Please give us a cite where any legal authority so ruled. The Secretary General has no such authority.
Wait a minute. How do you get from “international law favors democratic governments” (what that even means) to the US can overturn undemocratic regimes under international law?
Perhaps you can explain to me how the invasion was consistent with the UN Charter. I especially note Article 41 and 51:
So, the UN Charter allows any country to take actions in self defense to the extent that they are in response to an attack (not just a threat). So, since Iraq did not attack the US, we could not reasonably invoke Article 51, and since the UN Security Council did not authorize the war under Article 41…
I suppose one could make an argument that UNSC 1441 authorized the war, but that was not the common understanding of ANY of the members of the Security Council at the point that it was adopted. In fact, the US Ambassador to the UN declared that there was “no automaticity” in the resolution – meaning it did NOT authorize war if Iraq did not comply with inspectors.
So, I don’t understand on what basis you say the war complied with the UN Charter. Which article are you referring to?
Actually, never mind. I have spent too much time in the past rubbing your nose in reality and getting nowhere to be amused by the process, at least for now.
Let’s say we did something completely absurd and unjustified, like invading Canada because they’re making supposedly making illegal chemical weapons. Congress authorizes the President to use force to deal with the Canadian threat. The President promptly invades, and overthrows the Canadian government (which was not authorized by Congress). And of course, no illegal weapons or functioning weapons programs are ever found, no matter how much we search for it.
What would you say about a soldier who, like Watada, refused to be deployed to Canada, claiming it was illegal?
What if Congress passed a resolution saying “We authorize the invasion of Canada as a War of Conquest, with absolutely no regard for our treaty obligations. You pussies at the U.N can’t stop us, Neener, Neener.” What about a soldier who refuses after that?
So Congress declares war on Canada, and the President then orders Lt. Hypothetical to get on a plane bound for Canada.
Lt. Hypothetical might think it is an unwise order, or an immoral order, and he might be so strongly against the invasion of Canada that he cannot in good conscience obey the order. If he decides to protest the invasion of Canada by publicly refusing to obey the order, and sits down in front of the transport plane waiting to be arrested, then good for him.
But that doesn’t mean he was given an illegal order. If the President (via the chain of command) ordered him to shoot unarmed civilians, or torture prisoners, then that would be an illegal order. Getting on a plane to invade Canada is not an illegal order, and it would not be a war crime to obey that order, just like no German soldiers were prosecuted for war crimes for invading Poland.
German soldiers got prosecuted for war crimes for shooting civilians, torturing prisoners, rape, and suchlike. Not for obeying orders to invade Poland or France.
Lt. Watada was perfectly free to decide that getting on a plane to Iraq was something he refused to do. That doesn’t mean his commanding officer was committing a crime by issuing the order to deploy to Iraq.
No, of course not. Iraq’s political independence was demonstrated by the fact that there were Ba’athists all over the place in the executive, legislative, judicial, political, and military spheres of Iraq even after our invasion. Except, of course, for the ones we’d killed, held for the new Iraqi government to kill, imprisoned, or held for the new Iraqi government to imprison, or barred from public activity.
How, precisely, do you believe that an invasion based solely on overthrowing the existing government of a nation not an assault on its political independence?