I know we’ve done this before, several times, but I wanted to start this tread to really nail this down. In another thread, Sailor claims its a slam dunk case…that the US’s actions in Iraq were ‘illegal’ because they violated ‘international law’.
To my mind, in order to show that the US actions are illegal, first we’d need to look at the relevant international laws with reguards to US actions in Iraq. I’ll let the war is illegal side present their own arguements, but this seems to be the most referenced article, dealing with CHAPTER VII, articles 39-51 of the UN Charter.
These seem to be the relevant passages:
From Charter of the United Nations: Chapter VII
There is more there, but it seems fairly…sparse to base an entire ‘legal’ system on. It seems to me that Article 51 gives member nations some wiggle room to pursue their own agendas, within limits, but I conceed that this is only my interperatation of it.
I’m currently researching the laws that are BEHIND these statements (if any), but so far haven’t found anything relevant. I’ll rely on the illegal crowd to fill in what they think is relevant in any case.
Next we’d need to look at how our own constitution reguards international law…what takes precedence? Was congress’s actions illegal, or were they within their rights to grant the President the powers necessary to go to war in Iraq?
Here, things seem murky to me.
The US ConstitutionArticle VI
This seems to clearly say that all treaties made shall be “the supreme law of the land.” This seems to run counter to the appearent intent of the founding fathers, that the Constitution shall in fact be the supreme law of the land, which can be ammended but not superceeded. It begs the question, if an international treaty ratified by Congress is found to violate the constitution…what takes precedence? Does the treaty hold precedence in this case over the Constitution, thus nullifying it? Or does (as was appearently the intent of the founding fathers IMO) the Constitution take precedence over any ratified treaty until and unless the Constitution itself is ammended?
It seems that Article VI is and has been at the heart of the debate over this issue for a LONG time…since Jefferson at least.
This OP is getting overly long now, and I really want to let both the illegal war and legal war sides present their own cases, so I’ll cut off here and wait to see if Sailor and others want to present their sides as to why the US’s actions were either legal or illegal.
My own position (which appearently infuriated Sailor, for which I’m militantly unconcerned) is that the war was neither legal nor illegal, as the international laws in effect are vague and ambiguous on setting out the exact parameters by which a country is in violation. I base a lot of this on the fact that I’m unaware of any body actually filing charges against the US for an ‘illegal’ act, as well as the old standby that a person (or country) is innocent until FOUND to be guilty…and until a ruling is made by a properly impowered body, its shear arrogance to say it was definitively an ‘illegal’ act…or a ‘legal’ one for that matter. No judgement has been made…therefor IMO, any assertions are pure speculation.
I think a good case could be made that the US actions weren’t ‘legal’ (i.e. the US had no legal justification for war)…but thats not exactly the same thing as saying they are ‘illegal’ (i.e. they BREAK the laws). On the domestic side, it seems that Article VI is a contridiction, thus making the issue also murky as far as the Constitution goes. I’m looking for a Supreme Court ruling atm to see if they decisively ruled on this, but no luck so far. At a guess, they have decided not to touch this one at all, but thats just based on what I’ve read so far.
Reguards,
XT