Inspired from this thread. There is a link to a study here:
http://www.time.com/time/health/article/0,8599,1865847,00.html
It says they proved that dogs are capable of a type of envy. But when you read about the mechanics of the study, they seem irrelevant and incomplete to me.
This seems to me to be a natural degradation of desired results due to a random reward schedule. To me, I dont think the study shows anything without a control group. Where are the animals who were simply denied reward without watching another dog receive the reward?
If a control group shows that an individual dog will stop responding to commands if you stop giving him rewards, or will require more commands to respond if you don’t reward him, then wouldn’t that negate the results of the study?
Why is there no countrol group? Is there some biased agenda here? Or maybe they just didn’t think it through?
Or is this a valid study but I’m off base? What do you guys think. And try to leave out your natural biases in this debate. I want this debate to be about the merits of this particular study and not necessarily about whether you think the results are true.
In other words, it is possible to totally believe that dogs do feel envy, but that this particular expirement does not validly prove it.
It’s also possible to believe that dogs don’t feel envy, but that this expirement was vaild as executed and it does prove there is something at work which should be studied further. So regardless of how you feel about dogs or their ability to feel emotions… what’s up with this experiment?
I submit that the expirement did not have enough groups of dogs, no control group, and the ambiguous methods did not prove anything except what the testers set out to prove in the first place. It’s bogus.