In another thread there was an argument being made that an American cannot be tried by another country for a crime if he was tried by the US and found innocent. This is, obviously, nonsense just the same as American courts would not consider it double jeopardy to try someone who has been acquitted abroad. Correct?
I believe RedFury is correct and Monty is mistaken. I believe a person in the USA can be tried for the same act by the Feds and by a State without infringing the double jeopardy clause.
In other words, for instance, Police officer A beats the crap out of citizen B for no reason. A is tried by the State of C and is found not guilty. This bars any further prosecution for that same act by C. But the Feds can still bring charges based on the same act by C infringing federal statute X.
Noit to mention that a trial conducted in a foreign country would be even less of a consideration regarding double jeopardy.
You’re right. It’s called the seperate sovereigns exception. For instance, the four policemen who beat Rodney King were first tried in California for excessive force, and then, after that trial, were tried in federal court for the violation of King’s civil rights, for the same act they had been tried in state court.
Captain Amazing, thanks for your input. That is the exact example I had in mind.
Good one. I had not thought of that possibility.
So we have the (admittedly remote) possibility that a person could be tried for the same act by one or more foreign countries, by one or more states, by the feds and by the military and yet not trigger the double jeopardy clause.
Yep…a simple way to think of it (for me at least, not sure it is fair to couch it this way) is they are actually being prosecuted for breaking different laws. It is not that you cannot be prosecuted for the same crime more than once but that you cannot be prosecuted for breaking the same law more than once for a given act.
But getting the US to extradite might be an insurmountable hurdle.
Let’s say Rumsfeldt is tried for falsifying info, and getting the Congress to authorise the use of force. Let’s stipulate that he is found innocent.
Then the UK demands that we turn him over to them, on charges that amount to pretty much the same thing (the UK acted on Rummy’s bogus info, UK soldiers get killed in Iraq).
I wonder how that would work out, but I am hedging my bets on a polite “no” to extradition.
But if one sovereign prosecutes someone for breaking law K by doing T and that person is acquitted I believe the same sovereign cannot now try again to prosecute him for breaking law Y by the same act. Different laws but now double jeopardy does apply. Right?
Although the prosecution might be prevented by another principle known as collateral estoppel.
But two laws are different for double jeopardy purposes only if each includes an element that the other does not.
So if Law K and Law Y each include elements that the other doesn’t, then a prosecution and acquittal for one doesn’t create a DJ bar for a subsequent reprosecution.
If Law K and Law Y have exactly the same elements, or if ones has all the elements of the other, then you’re right.
Oh, Ok, thanks. It is a bit more complex than I thought but I see the double jeopardy protection is even more restricted than even I thought because I was under the impression that it barred any further prosecution by the same sovereign under any law and now I learn that is not the case. Interesting. Thanks.
The problem is I ask a simple question and it just opens up a bunch of more complex questions. I had to look up collateral estoppel. It will take me a while to try to digest that and it may be over my head anyway.
I do not expect you to give me a law course here but thanks for pointing me in the right direction.
The case that I always trot out to to illustrate dual sovereigns and double jeopardy is Heath v. Alabama, 474 U.S. 82 (1985). Heath hired two men to kill his wife, who was nine months pregnant; they kidnapped her in Alabama and killed her in Georgia. He pleaded guilty in Georgia in exchange for a life sentence. Alabama susequently indicted him for murder during a kidnapping, and he received the death penalty. The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that each state had the right to criminalize and exercise jurisdiction over Heath’s actions, and it didn’t violate double jeopardy for each to prosecute him for a single course of conduct.
In reading about collateral estoppel I find it interesting that the double jeopardy rule is not, as I had thought, something which exists isolated with the sole purpose of protecting persons against abuse by the authorities but that it exists in a larger frame of rules which inspire it and serve to interpret it.
Very good case in that the ruling is very short and clear for non-lawyers. Some rulings are so intricate as to be unintelligible to lay persons but this one is very simple: