Douche touche, Brute? (pronunciation question)

Factual Questions
1

Whe do we pronounce the word ‘douche’ with one syllable, and the word ‘touche’ with two?

2

Because touché has an accent

3

Thanks! Figured as much.

Now, is that because we’ve only retained the word in its original form, while douche has been anglicized, or did douche never have an accent?

4

douche, meaning shower bath, or, as used in America as well, cleansing of the feminine parts, is a noun, and, as such, the “e” at the end primarily indicates that the noun is feminine in form.

touché, meaning ‘touched’, is a form of the verb toucher. The accent on the last ‘e’ is used for that particular verb form; the word touche is a noun meaning (not surprisingly) “touch.” The accent primarily serves to distinguish the verb form from the noun. Presumably at one time, there was some pronounciation distinction between and among the various accents in French, but for the most part, I don’t think the grave and the accute have much difference in pronounciation any more.

5

A bit off-topic: does anybody know if touche has anything to do with the “toochie” (or however it’s really spelled) that sometimes goes with “Fuckin’ A” in one of its many variants? F-A-Toochie and F-A-Bubba are the most prevalent versions around here, and have been most of my life, but I have never seen any reliable etymology on the “toochie” thing and just made the bold assumption that it has something to do with touche. How weird is that notion?