I have never had a good grasp of economics, ever. I had a question inspired by this thread. In it a poster states that sales tax is a regressive tax, in that it takes the most money from those least able to pay.
That definition of regressive taxes completely makes sense to me- you have 2 people, one makes 20k a year and the other makes 100k. You have a flat income tax of 20%- that leaves Person A with 16k and Person B with 80k. Even though Person B paid more in taxes, and it’s the same % for both, it makes it considerably more difficult for Person A to make ends meet, while Person B will, I dunno, have to settle for a cheaper car or take a shorter vacation.
First, is this a complete misunderstanding of regressive taxes? And if not, I still don’t see how a sales tax is regressive. Because Person B has more disposable income, he is able, if not actually more likely, to buy more stuff. I know there are misers out there who invest it all and live modestly, but let’s assume that most people would actually spend some of that money. Not go crazy, but buy nicer clothes and bigger/faster cars and go out to nice restaurants and things. And let’s assume Person A, who isn’t so destitute they can’t do anything, of course spends money going out to the movies and shopping, just cheaper products, and fewer of them.
So, generally speaking, wouldn’t a wealthy person spend more money? And thus pay more in sales tax? I mean, my assumptions could be way off but I just don’t see a lot of wealthy people obsessively clipping coupons and shopping in thrift stores.
I recall in my American Government class some students proposed abolishing income taxes altogether and just having sales taxes. They did a bit of research, with which my teacher was apparently familiar, to the effect that states without income taxes (like Florida) have stronger economies than states that have them.
Can anyone help me understand?