First, I know NADA about economics. Somehow managed to get my undergrad degree several yrs ago without a single economics class.
So this is admittedly coming from a sincere desire to understand this, but not a heck of a lot of background.
That said, in the 1980’s Israel’s inflation was out of control. To avoid a soda costing $100 (I know they don’t use dollars, just using the symbol for convenience’s sake) due to rising inflation, they minted an entirely new set of bills and coins that effectively were (on the face) 1/100 of the old bills.
So you could buy a Coke for $100 old bucks, or $1 new buck. The new money was easy to differentiate from the old money, and the idea was to allow both currencies to co-exist for a certain amt of time until the new currency completely took over.
Well, to me it seems like it worked, at least at the time. Money made more sense – perceived value for the amt of currency required. After all, a coke just shouldn’t cost $100.
Today on a financial radio show, a college-aged caller said that according to his calculations, a 3% inflation rate in the US would mean that when he was ready to retire in 45 years, if he had $1,000,000 saved up it would only have the purchase power of $250,000 in 2003 currency.
That, plus the fact that houses now cost $500,000 instead of $5,000… cars cost $20,000 instead of $200… etc., etc…
Wouldn’t it make sense to adopt a similar strategy in the U.S.? Sure, we’re used to the current cost structure, and I’m not advocating this as something we should actually DO, because adjusting may be challenging at best.
But part of me wonders if it would actually make more sense to try a similar approach.
Can someone who understands economics comment on this?