Is there a difference between stating that in a statistical model one variable mediates the impact of another variable (perhaps not completely) on the outcome vs. stating that there is an “endogeneity problem” in the model?
I ask as I’m wondering if these are the same problem (potentially at least) just expressed differently in different disciplines or jargon. It seems that solutions to the mediating variable problem are explained quiet differently than to the “endogeneity problem” but this might also be an example of how the issue is treated by sociologists/public health writers vs. economists (and their ilk).
Thanks.