This is akin to one of those IMHO validation threads — while I’m fairly (obnoxiously?) fixed in my opinion of the situation, I’d like to be sure I didn’t overlook something or that my thinking is far outside the norm. But since it’s a rather esoteric ethical subject I thought it more appropriate for GD. This is a completely hypothetical situation, with absolutely no connection to the real world, no “incident” that sparked the conversation, and nothing to be gained nor lost.
The hypothetical:
**At a casino, the dealer accidentally overpays. You keep the chips. **
Describe the moral harm.
First, let’s keep the hypothetical clean. It’s a legal casino, you’re not starving for food, the casino isn’t about to go out of business, you don’t have a gambling problem, there’s no collusion between you and the dealer, etc. It’s a smallish error, and after a couple hours playing on the table it’s the only mistake you’ve seen (e.g., it’s not going to be noticed by the pit boss or cost the dealer his job).
Second, if variables make a difference, try stating both the variable and it’s alternates. For example, if it makes a difference if he’s simply overpaying or paying out on a hand/dice roll that he shouldn’t, or if the amount of overage actually does make a difference.
Third, if you simply can’t not fight the hypothetical (e.g., you just can’t accept that the risk of a dealer getting reprimanded is null), say so at the outset so it’s clear.
My .02
I the strictest sense, this can be labeled as stealing. While there may be arguments that can be made (e.g., casino signing on to the risk, equal chance of underpayment somewhere else, the possibility of overpayment is a gamble itself) that it is ethically neutral, I think those are weaker and more convoluted than simply stipulating the notion that it is a form of theft.
However, as far as moral harm is concerned, I think it is minimal to the point of being negligible. It’s difficult to quantify moral harm except to put it in relative terms: it is less harm than knowingly accepting more change than you should from a store clerk — something I think you should return to the cashier when you notice, and extraordinarily far from shoplifting an item. Considering it on par with robbery (save in name only) is, to me, absurd.
But if you can take the high road and describe it as a moral harm of greater magnitude, or disabuse me (and, I presume, others) of relative harms, have at it. If you want to get all devil’s advocaty on us, feel free to throw in a disclaimer in you don’t want people misreading what you have to say.
Underlying the question is whether this is a consistent belief (and in many ways the more interesting question). If something causes negligible moral harm, can it be said to be morally wrong in the first place? If at the end of days, all your sins and transgressions are perfectly balanced but this one act remains, does it have any affect on the scales? (insert your own analogy here as necessary)