So you’re asserting that non-citizens, non-residents, i.e. foreigners in foreign lands, have constitutional rights against various government actions? I don’t doubt many liberals want to believe this, but I live in a world where the President can order the actual killing of these people (and has thousands of times in the past decades), the President can have these people held without trial, without recourse to any court of review in “black sites” and etc. My understanding is the only reason those things stopped was because of changes in the law.
You and the ACLU appear to be asserting the 14th Amendment applies to every person on earth, because otherwise discrimination against foreign Muslims has simply no protection under our laws.
I think your constitutional interpretation is lacking any precedent, so I’d love to see some proof for it. Otherwise the discussion should be solely restricted to immigration law. Is it simply a matter that the President wasn’t following immigration statutes with this order? If so, then I’ll admit I’m ignorant of those statutes, I had read an earlier law that said visas could be revoked on a discretionary basis, but that governed the department of state and non-immigrant visas. Is it simply the case that under the law, immigrant visas are not able to be revoked on a discretionary basis?
If so, then the order makes sense to me. But if the order is somehow based on the President mistreating religious groups overseas, I think it’s “manifestly obvious” those people have no first amendment protections, no 14th amendment protections or etc. We’ve historically banned people from this country for racist/bigoted reasons, and I don’t mean me 200 years ago, but in the late 19th and early 20th century, after things like the 14th Amendment were already part of the constitution.