It’s common practice, at least in the financial sector, that any action brought by a regulatory agency that concludes to the detriment of the defendant almost invariably involves a punitive fine or other measures, but without any admission of guilt.
In a hearing last week titled, "Examining the Settlement Practices of U.S. Financial Regulators” it was stated by Federal Reserve General Counsel Scott Alverez that only 7 of roughly 1000 enforcement actions concluded without consent (thus leading to a finding of facts, trial, and subsequent decision by a judge as opposed to a pre-trial settlement agreement).
The hearing is in response to a 2009 case in which Judge Rakoff declined to accept a settlement agreement between the SEC and Citibank because without admission of guilt and without facts, Judge Rakoff is unable to determine if the settlement is in the public’s interest.
Well, he say’s it better than I’m able. He states that he was “forced to conclude that proposed Consent Judgment that asks the Court to impose substantial injunctive relief, enforced by the Court’s own contempt power, on the basis of allegations unsupported by and proven or acknowledged facts whatsoever, is neither reasonable, nor fair, nor adequate, nor in the public interest.” A summary of the action can be found here.
Mr. Alverez’s explanation for the practice of not requiring an admission of guilt is thus, “Requiring admission of fact and legal conclusions as a condition of entering into a consent action is likely to have a deleterious effect on our supervisory efforts by causing more institutions and individuals to challenge the requested relief in contested administrative proceedings, which typically takes years to reach final resolution, and which could delay implementation of necessary corrective action.”
William Black, a lawyer, academic, author, and former bank regulator states that the reasons to compel a guilty plea are these, “(1) It demonstrates that what has occurred was a fraud (otherwise they deny it after the fact and insist they were simply being extorted), (2) the plea of guilty (as opposed to nolo contender) can be used by civil plaintiffs (and in administrative enforcement actions) to invoke “collateral estoppel.”” The defendant is estopped from denying their guilt in the civil action. This makes it immensely easier for victims to recover, (3) offenders, particularly multiple offenders, are treated differently under the laws and rules. The pleas can be used under RICO to establish a pattern of racketeering, under the sentencing guidelines to secure a tougher prison sentence, and to argue in favor of punitive damages and asset freeze orders.”
I, myself, am of two minds. I can see both sides of the argument. I work in the legal field and have been involved in at least two cases that have spanned more than a decade. That’s a long time to wait for injunctive relief. However, there are many large corporations who break the same rules over and over and over without a pattern of action clearly being established because the cases are settled, then purged down the memory hole.
Is one option better than the other as a routine measure? Should discretion be given to the regulatory agencies on when to require an admission of guilt? Is there another option beside and either/or/both approach?