I have made a clerk to the justices my Fiduciary for a motoring offense case in the Uk. I understand, and have been led to believe, that he then becomes responsible and liable for settlement of the offence. Is this correct? Please only answer this question if you know the answer for sure! Others depend on its authenticity.
Thanks and take it easy,
Moving from IMHO to General Questions.
Did the clerk assent to this?
As with your earlier topic, this one lacks sufficient detail to say much about.
But I’m getting the impression that you’re acting the role of a jailhouse lawyer. Are you trying to find some kind of trick or loophole in the law in order to make a point or get off easy? The only real bit of advice I can offer you is that you aren’t going to do yourself any good by trying to be smarter than the legal system. There is no “magic word” that’s going to get you out of having to do something.
As before, the best ting I can tell you is that you will be better off hiring a lawyer instead of posting on a message board.