Thinking about the whole mortgage crisis and I realized that there were a few things I was curious about.
Let’s say Company A sells a mortgage to Company B and later Company A tries to foreclose.
a) Does it matter if the person being foreclosed on is in another state? Does that change the venue to a district court?
b) If Company A does try to foreclose under these circumstances, are there grounds for a countersuit like violations of FDCA, fraudulent practices (not holding the mortgage, etc?