I’ve barely skimmed through the thread so I apologise if it’s been tackled before, but I’ll present an argument for the first assertion below
assertion A: It’s irrational to infer we have no free will (NFW).
which is not the same as
assertion B: Believing in NFW is psychologically dissonant; hence it’s natural to believe in free will.
And it’s also not the same as
assertion C: there is no free will
----Argument----
Reasoning, or cognition-at-large is the process of generating inferences, if any, when given some starting point, or stimulus. When reasoning, one aims to produce valid inferences and avoid invalid ones. This requires the power to do reasoning. If one concludes that NFW is the case, then that’s equivalent to concluding that one doesn’t do anything, including reasoning.
Any train of thought, verbal and non-verbal, like, say,
I need to find my pen. I’m looking at the table. I don’t see it. Hence the pen is not on the table. I should look elsewhere.
requires mental activity wherein one starts with the input (sensorium and goals) and generate appropriate mental response whether that is a motor program or cognition.
Now, any attempt at verification or validation of the appropriateness of mental activity would itself be mental activity, whose very sanctity is what would be under question. Hence one can’t validate the line of reasoning which infers NFW, since one can’t do anything. Hence, it’s irrational to infer NFW
----End----
To repeat, assertion A doesn’t conclude that free will, in fact, doesn’t exist. NFW may be the case, and the mental activity we are subject to, may for some reason or not, comport with our naive realism of our mental activity. But it would have to be taken on as a dogma.