If I understand the logic correctly, Mexicans, Brazillians, etc. are termed “Latin” people because their languages all descend from Latin.
So…using this line of reasoning, is it equally accurate to refer to the French as a “Latin” people?
-Barcode
Well, sort of. “Latins” are “Latin Americans,” peoples from the Americas that were settled by Latin-descended-language speaking folks: the Spanish, mostly.
So, I don’t think Brazlilians qualify, in that regard. Portuguese, not Spanish, is spoken in Brazil. Yes, I know Portuguese is a Romance (Latin-based) language.
France isn’t in Latin America, but I guess that if Brazilians are “Latins” that the Quebecois are, as well.
The French are in Latin America – French Guiana, and a number of Caribbean isles.
As noted, Portuguese is a Romance language, derived from Latin. The Portuguese-speaking Brazilians are very much part of Latin America.
From Random House Dictionary http://www.randomhouse.com/wotd/index.pperl?date=19960510
Latin America, therefore, indicates those countries in the Americas where the dominant language is a Romance language, usually Spanish or Portuguese. French Guiana is considered part of Latin America because French is a Romance language. Suriname, formerly called Dutch Guiana, has Dutch as its official language, but since Spanish was declared its “principal working language” in 1976, it can be considered part of Latin America as well. The main exception is Guyana, whose official language is English, so despite being in South America, it is not considered part of Latin America. If Quebec were to separate into a French-speaking country, it would probably not be regarded as a Latin American country for cultural reasons.
(Actually, I believe there is another exception – doesn’t Belize have English as its official language?)
– Beruang
People confuse “Latin” (derived from the Roman Empire)with “Latino” (short for *latinoamericano *, Latin American)…So a Frenchman is a Latin.
and of course “Latino” gets constantly confused with “Hispanic” in the USA too. A Brazilian is a Latino, but not a Hispanic.
I don’t have an online cite, but I believe “Latin America” was christened by the French in the 1850’s and 1860’s to imply that the region was under their natural sphere of influence - remember Napoleon III and his stooge emperor Maximilian in Mexico. Before the area was usually “Iberoamerica” or simply “Spanish America” (somewhat ignoring Brazil). To add to it all, in Spain, they still often prefer “iberoamercano” to “latinoamericano”.