Try reading the “Legitimate Uses” section of your Wikipedia cite:
[QUOTE=Wikipedia]
You-too version
A legitimate use of the you-too version might be:
A makes criticism P.
A is also guilty of P.
Therefore, the criticism is confusing because it does not reflect A’s actual values or beliefs.
Another legitimate use of this version asserts:
A makes criticism of P for Q.
A is also guilty of Q.
Therefore, the criticism is confusing because it does not reflect A’s beliefs.
Example:
Version 1: “You say that taking a human life is wrong under all circumstances, but support killing in self-defense; you are either being inconsistent, or you believe that under some circumstances taking a human life is justified.”
Version 2: “You claim to believe that taking a human life is always wrong, and you criticize John for it. Contradictory to this, you also support killing in self-defense. You are a hypocrite and are inconsistent in your criticisms.”
Note the difference between this legitimate usage and the fallacious one: in the latter, we attempt to use A’s hypocrisy to prove that criticism P is false. This is illogical, since the truth value of a claim does not depend on the speaker. In the former, we are showing that A does not make a good critic, therefore arguing for greater skepticism toward his/her claims.
[/QUOTE]
If you have accepted a certain behavior on the part of one party, then your argument against that behavior by a second party can logically be called into question. At the very least, you have to explain why the two situations are different.
Take the first version above, and re-word it in terms of the Sarah Palin has no experience argument:
“Democrats say that selecting a VP with little experience is wrong under all circumstances, but they supported the selection of John Edwards for VP; they are either being inconsistent, or they believe that under some circumstances selecting a VP with little experience is justified.”
What people are trying to ask you is…in what circumstances is it justified? Why was it justified in one case, but not the other? Or was it wrong then, too?
Another point, which I made in a GD thread but that I don’t think you responded to, is that some are trying to make the point that the Republicans are perhaps being held up to a standard that doesn’t exist. If example after example can be given of VPs who didn’t have much experience, and even Presidents who didn’t have much experience, then why is the standard being changed now, with this candidate?