A friend and I are in disagreement about how the following sentence should be worded.
“20 years of false imprisonment (has/have) made him irate.”
One argument is that there is only one, singular subject, which is “20 years of false imprisonment.” This would lead to “has” being the only correct word choice.
Another argument is that the subject could be plural or singular (“20 years” or “false imprisonment”), and either “has” or “have” could be correct.
A third option (that neither of us argued for) is that the subject is plural, and “have” is the only correct word choice.
Could someone please help us hammer out this argument before we have to resort to violence?
“20 years of false imprisonment” is – or effectively is – a noun clause. “20 years” didn’t make him irate, that whole thing in the singular noun clause did.
The writer uses the verb that corresponds to the intention of the phrase. Is each and every one of those twenty years being emphasized or it is the twenty years as a whole? The state of the verb makes that intention clear to the reader.
Whether you use the “noun phrase” idea, or the “amount vs. number” rule, or the “meaning and intent” idea, the answer is the same – the subject is effectively singular; the way I rationalize it is that the (original) sentence is effectively saying “the long period of false imprisonment has made him irate”. It doesn’t much matter if it was 19, 20, or 21 years – we’re not counting. It’s the same with the oil, etc. As Exapno implies, the singular best reflects the sense and intended effect.
Perhaps the most convincing proof of the singular meaning of that phrase would be in the sentence “20 years is a long time”. I doubt anyone would ever say “20 years are a long time”.
Conversely, if we were talking, say, about oil quality control samples taken at random, then it’s a tally where numbers matter, and we might say “almost one thousand [individual] gallons of oil have been sampled so far”. The meaning and emphasis here is not on the amount of oil, but on the sample count.
I reject the idea that the unwashed masses of Teh Internets should be considered authoritative arbiters of correct English usage!
More seriously, “years has/have made” can’t be judged out of context; either may be correct depending on what precedes and what follows.