“none of us knows” or “none of us know” ? “any of you know” or “any of you knows” …
Any of you know? None of us knows.
Both usages are common, and have been for centuries, so they’re both correct in my book. Some people argue that “none” is equivalent to “not one” and therefore should take the singular, but I see nothing wrong with things like “none of them are here”. In fact “none of them is here” sounds odd to me.
“none of us knows” or “none of us know”
“any of you know” or “any of you knows”
These are interesting cases when laid side by side. The “any” cases are easy to resolve – the “of you” modifies the word “any”, which specifies a non-specific “one” or “at least one”. Accordingly, the “any” case takes the second person (“of you”) singular (“any”). Compare: Does anyone know? He knows (where the second phrase has a specific referent).
The “none” cases were a less definite in my mind, so I went and looked it up. Interesting find at a descriptivist grammar blog:
So then. I made the choice for “none of us knows” strictly on the basis of style and what sounded good to me. Of course, that’s with the phrase in isolation. Within a longer narrative, with some contextual clues, “none of us know” might sound better.
It might have some dialectical uses, but I’d offer that “any of you knows” has by far the weakest case of the four phrases offered.
The example above makes me think you should use the noun being quantified as the subject. In other words, say it like you would if you took out the “none of.” So, the meals are good. None of the meals are good. The problem with “none of us” is that if you take out “none of” you’ve got a bad sentence. Neither “us knows” or “us know” is any good. In that case, I’d assume none is singular and say “none of us know.”
Oh, I interpreted that part as the OP asking the question in a joky way :smack:
Naw. Us is plural so none is plural. The switch between objective and subjective case is just the necessity of using a prepositional phrase. Just replace us with the antecedent if it bugs you.
Oddly enough, I’d say, “None of us know,” but I’d also say, “None of us has.” At least, I would if has is a linking verb. I don’t know why.
I think both of the “none of us…” examples are correct, but I interpret them to be slightly different in what they convey.
I would interpret “none of us knows” to be putting a fine point on the fact that each individual referred to as part of the ‘us’ does not know. However “none of us know” makes me think that such a distinction is not being made and ‘us’ refers to the conglomeration of individuals without trying to point out their individuality.
Just look at the ‘-s’ ending on the verb. That suffix denotes the Third Person, Singular, Present Tense. Notice that it is Singular number. I think that is why I am hearing it as saying something like: “not one of us individuals knows…” Even though that example is kinda clumsy.
I usually subscribe to the “none is ‘not one’ and thus singular” school myself, but I never get my panties in a twist when I encounter it used otherwise.
Usage Note in the American Heritage Dictionary:
“It is widely asserted that none is equivalent to no one and hence requires a singular verb and singular pronoun: ‘None of the prisoners was given his soup.’ It is true that none is etymologically derived from the Old English word an, “one,” but the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke and is widespread in the works of respectable writers today. Of course, the singular usage is perfectly acceptable. The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: ‘None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial.’ When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: ‘Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee.’ None can only be plural in its use in sentences such as ‘None but his most loyal supporters believe (not believes) his story’.”
Why does every question of this sort have to have a definite answer?
Incidentally, there is a serious argument to be made that 0 is a plural (would you say “he has no bananas” or “he has no banana”?)
Yes, he has no bananas. At least, not today.