Guy Fawkes is notorious for his involvement in the so-called Gunpowder Plot to blow up the English Parliament in the 17th century. My question regards the pronunciation of this man’s first name. I had always refered to the man as /gi:/ or “gee” (with a hard G; rhymes with “ski”), after the French pronunciation of the name. However, I’ve since learned that most people pronounce the man’s name exactly the way the word “guy” is said in modern English (/gai/, with a hard G; rhymes with “sky”). But that got me thinking – the English word “guy” to denote a generic person or man comes, in fact, from Guy Fawkes; prior to him it was not part of the lexicon. So obviously, back in 1605 when Fawkes was arrested for treason, the populace wouldn’t have had this rather convenient word upon which to base their pronunciation of his name.
Now, in noting that “Guy” is quite a popular French name, I would like to pose the following questions:
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How and when did the name “Guy” enter the English language? Is it an English name, did it enter through French, or does it have some other history?
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Irrespective of “Guy”'s origin, could its current popularity in French be explained by past French support for Guy Fawkes? England and France have not always been the chummiest of nations, so one might assume that it became fashionable for the French in the 17th century to name one’s children after enemies to the English throne.
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If “Guy” is French in origin (or at least entered English through French, as I suspect), is it true that in Guy Fawkes’s day, his name would have been pronounced as it is in French? Perhaps at the time, the name was a relatively new borrowing and its pronunciation had not yet been anglicized. Then again, if it was an older borrowing, then the Great Vowel Shift probably would have taken care of the transition from /i:/ to /ai/ well before Fawkes’s time.