The United States has been accused violating the Geneva Convention in World War II, the Vietman War, and the Gulf War. It has never (as far as I know) been actually tried for war crimes.
So, I’m wondering…is it usually only the loser of a war that’s put on trial for war crimes? Has there ever been a case where a nation that is victorious in a war is later charged and tried for war crimes in that same war? I guess this is understandable…to the victor go the spoils and all that. But if a nation does violate the Geneva Convention, it does seem a bit unjust for them to go scot-free just because they won. Especially if their victory was aided by criminal actions.
Also–to avoid misunderstanding–I’m not saying the the U.S. is actually guily of any war crimes. I’m just using them as an example of a country that has never had to answer for any possible violations of the Geneva Convention.