Have western countries obtained the Communist utopia?

John Mace: “And you have datat that the population of GB was better off before that?”

Well as, Zorro point outs, they lived differently prior to industrialization: there were no large industrial towns, no factories none of the special social problems that arise with the different demographic of an urban, industrial society. But, in any case, you wanted proof that capitalism needs to be offset by socialism (of some kind) in order for the benefits of increased productivity to be spread throughout society. Now that you’ve been offered an understanding of that you’re changing your request.

The question of whether agricultural laborers were better off than industrial laborers is actually a complex one and ultimately depends on the specific examples. Industrialiazation definitely benefited some workers vis-a-vis their agricultural counterparts (as I said above): e.g., master spinners who were skilled factory workers, but whose skill was eventually displaced by machinery. That’s always the way it went (and still does): employers struggled to keep wages down as far as possible: by increasing hours, by employing women and children (who could be paid much less), by automating wherever possible, by repressing trade unionism. That’s very different from the kind of relationship you tended to have in the more paternalistic and quasi-feudal agricultural societies of the early modern period (as well as the apprenticeship system for trades). These were sometimes better and sometimes worse in terms an isolated variable such as mortality.

The point isn’t that industrialization shouldn’t have happened. The point is that prior to the labor movement and attendant socialist movements, industrialization was, by and large, disproportionately benefiting the wealthy capitalist class (as well as some of the older landowners who got into the act by various means). Certainly you won’t catch Marx complaining about industrialization; he doesn’t in the least romanticize feudal society or agriculture. On the contrary, he sees industrialization as providing the technological means–via greater productivity–for a communally owned society.

Zorro, I agree with most of your post but I do want to emphasize that Marx was not the central figure for British trade unionists or the British socialist movement (which included many educated middle-class people) during the nineteenth century. It wasn’t really until after his death (in 1883) that large numbers of people began reading Marx. Socialism prior to Marx was a very mixed bag and it included all kinds of intellectual and humanitarian streams, in addition to its more popular roots in the working classes. For much of the nineteenth century what workers wanted was a) the vote and b) trade unions–along with specific provisions such as the ten hour workday. Once all adult males got the vote (which didn’t happen completely until the 1880s), the advent of “collectivism” of some kind was all but inevitable. Again, John Mace, by that time it was very common for well-off educated people to think of themselves as socialists of some stripe because they (rightly) saw collectivism as the future. Trade unions, unemployment insurance, social security measures of one sort of another became fairly mainstream–with politicians such as the young Winston Churchill plugging for some of them under the banner of the old Liberal Party (traditionally the party of middle-class businessmen) and to try to head off the rise of the Labor Party.

“Proof” of this state of affairs is available in any good high school text book on the subject of the industrial revolution; it’s not in the least controversial. Though if you want to read a more substantive social history of the period, one of my favorites is still E.P. Thompson’s classic The Making of the English Working Classes (though it’s considered a bit out of date). Eric Hobsbawm’s contribution to the Penguin history series, Industry and Empire is another excellent introduction and has lots of figures in it. On the turn-of-the-century period, the period when even die-hard laissez-faireists realized that just to be competitive with other industrializing nations they had to have a better educated, healthier workforce I also recommend, The Quest for National Efficiency. If you surf the web you’ll find various places where academics have put interesting primary documents on the web: e.g., the testimony of child factory workers before parliamentary commissions of inquiry describing their brutal working conditions. I also strongly recommend reading Adam Smith, The Wealth of Nations–but make sure it’s not an abridged version as the typical edited versions leave out a lot of the things that Smith said about social welfare.

What you’re claiming is logically unsound, no matter how much you mean what you say or insist that you are right.

A system will not be used by people if it has no goal. It’s elementary. If there is nothing to be attained in the use of system, why would it be used.

Any system used by people has a goal. Even if it isn’t stated in bold print is some text book for you to parrot off, it is there. Even if that goal is only defined by the collective goals of those using the system, it is there. While the goal of capitalism may not be all clichéd like that of communism, it still exists. It would seem to me that the goal of capitalism would be something like: The effective management of an economy according to supply and demand, or economic factors balanced by opposed efforts to establish monopolies.

At any rate, is this little quibble over the existence of a capitalist goal leading anywhere? Are you contending my original comments in any way that has significance?

Ah, John Mace, I missed your post before writing mine. Perhaps I can get back to you later or perhaps Kimstu will visit before then. You seem to think that capitalism existed since time immemorial. Not true: it developed as a challenge to feudalism in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries. Again, Smith is a key figure here as I suspect you realize. If these posts seem like “tidbits” to you it’s because this is really the subject of large book or a course.

Mand:

No, I have never said that capitalism existed from time immemorial. I just said that it didn’t spring fully formed out of nothing in 19th century GB.

Anyway, I’d rather not go off on the tangent of in this thread that everyone seems to want to. Perhaps in another thread about the capitalism vs socialism.

For now, I’d just like to stick to my original post of calling B.S. on what Kinetsu wrote. People commonly spout that as if it were a truism. I challenged it. And not to pick on Kinetsu personally. He’s not the only one, by a long shot, who probably believes it without having any real data to back it up.

For what it’s worth, I agree with John Mace. It’s true that an early industrial economy is exploitive to its workers and very class divisive. But the agricultural economy it is replacing is more exploitive and divisive. The reason workers left the fields and moved to early factory towns (and are still doing so in developing countries) is because the factories offered less work and better pay. And while the opportunity to become a factory owner was narrow, it was certainly greater than the chance of rising in an agricultural society.

You are still missing the point Nemo. Neither Kimstu nor I (nor even Marx though Kimstu and I are not arguing Marx’s position) are arguing for the benefits of an agricultural society as against those of an industrial society. The question at hand is whether capitalism needs aspects of socialism to balance its destabilizing tendency to concentrate wealth in the hands of the few (among other problems). John Mace’s bringing up agricultural societies was a digression from that topic–though one I’m happy to discuss so long as it’s recognized as a digression.

On top of that, (though less important to the debate) you seem to have missed the gist of several posts. The situation of laborers in agricultural socities was sometimes more “exploitative” than those in industrial socities and sometimes not–it dpends on the variables and the specific cases that are being looked at. On the whole, agricultural socities tended to be less divisive than industrial socities but, because they were more paternalistic, to offer less political and civil liberty in being so. It was not laborers but the smaller swath of middle classes who advanced the transition from mainly agricultural societies to industry, and from feudalism to limited democracy, because they were the ones who were politically and economically empowered by these transitions. In England the Enclosure acts and other later measures such as the New Poor Law drove large numbers of people out of agricultural laborer by changing its material conditions in a disadvantageous way. Such people had little choice but to turn to industrial labor: although many emigrated to the United States, Australia, etc. (which is one of many ways in which colonialism comes into this story). (Note that a similar thing happens now–people being forced to abandon their tradition form of sustaining themselves–when third-world countries “liberalize” by getting rid of longstanding protections for indigenous industry/agriculture.) Working people had to work together to win their fair share: and in Britain and several other countries that happened through gradual democratic implementation of social welfare policies, though the threat of more radical forms of collectivization (esp. communism) played a hand in making that possible.

I am ftr, not against industrialization in the third world or anywhere else. I am simply pointing out that history shows, again and again, that industrial capitalism needs to be balanced by government regulation, including social welfare, or it becomes unstable and exploitative of a large number if not the largest number of people in a society. It’s funny how people resist this idea without, apparently, knowing anything about the history in question–or even the kinds of programs on which their own prosperity depends!

Sorry, Mandelstam, but it was you who digressed from the topic when you replied for Kinetsu about conditions in GB during the industrializatin period. A simple reading of this thread will show that. I’ll admit to going along with that tangent and trying to counter your argument, but, like I said before, I think that’s really a debate for another thread.

Anyway, that’s not really the point, but it just irked me a bit to be accused of something I didn’t do (by the very person who did it).

JM: *Probalby the closest any place has come to a completely capitalist society is Hong Kong before the Chinese took over. No sane person would say it was “largely impoverished”. *

But HK was not a “completely capitalist society” in the British period, as even you admit. For example, around the time of the handover, about half of its inhabitants lived in public housing (all the land was owned by the government, hardly in accordance with capitalist notions of private property). The government interfered heavily in financial markets by controlling taxation, and helped control the labor market by subsidizing housing and some social services such as medical care, as well as restricting union activity and suppressing anti-government movements.

Furthermore, your comment about British HK’s “per capita income” being “one of the highest in the world” obscures the fact that behind the impressive average lay a huge range of disparity: lots of extremely rich people and lots of very poor ones. In 1997, 11% of the population lived below the poverty line, and the gap between rich and poor was increasing.

It’s a common myth among “market fundamentalists” that British HK was a close approximation to a laissez-faire utopia, but the facts don’t really bear out that view. As I said, neither pure capitalism nor pure socialism seems capable of providing a decent existence for everyone in a real-world society. There needs to be a mix.

Sorry John, you asked for evidence to back up Kimstu’s claim that “Capitalism without some socialism produces a largely impoverished, inadequately regulated “winner-take-all” society.” I offered the example industrial Britain which, IMO, offers far-reaching evidence for that claim. You replied by asking me, “And you have datat that the population of GB was better off before that?” which, as Zorro and I both explained, wasn’t what I said.

Although poverty certainly existed in pre-industrial England it was of a very different kind, demographically and otherwise, than that produced by laissez-faire capitalism in the nineteenth century. The advent of “some socialism” offset these adverse effects greatly. It’s as simple as that.

Again, I have no problem discussing agricultural society as part of the historical context in which one evaluates claims about “Communist utopias” (to cite the OP), and about the impoverishing effects of industrial capitalism. When I said you’d introduced the “digression” I didn’t mean that as a slight to you–and I’m sorry if it came off that way–but only as a caution to Nemo who was well on his way to arguing with a strawman.

While we’re setting the record straight, a few minor details addressed to several different posters: Kimstu’s name is Kimstu, not Kinetsu. And both of us are female.

Ah, and Kimstu, who wold be just as lucid by any other name ;), has arrived to clarify her own position.

Mandelstam:

My apologies to Kimstu for mangling her name. I spent too much time in Japan and must have “nipon-ized” it subconsciously.

And there are certainly worse accustation one could make about someone than that they “digressed”.:slight_smile:

Kimstu:

Living in poverty in HK is probably like living in luxury in the most of the world. I would never claim that capitalism results in eqaulity of material wealth. But it does not produce a “largely impoverished society” as you originally claimed.

Perhaps you can define “largely impoverished”.

JM: *Living in poverty in HK is probably like living in luxury in the most of the world. I would never claim that capitalism results in eqaulity of material wealth. But it does not produce a “largely impoverished society” as you originally claimed. *

:confused: This sounds as though you’re still arguing for British HK as a real-life example of (almost) pure capitalism. I thought we had agreed (and I thought my cites had demonstrated) that in fact its government played a fairly large role in regulating markets and subsidizing social services, which are generally viewed as “socialist”-type activities.

Perhaps you can define “largely impoverished”.

Sure: I’d define it as a society where a large percentage (say, over a quarter) of the population does not have secure access to adequate food, housing, clean water/air/land, medical care, and education.

You’re quite right that by that standard, British HK does not qualify as “largely impoverished”—but then, as we just noted, it was not a pure capitalist society.

In fact, back when the HK housing market was more laissez-faire and less government-controlled, many people were far worse off. According to my www.cityu.edu.hk/sa/working_paper/wp9701.PDF"]earlier link:

“Living in luxury”? I don’t think so.

I have never understood why so many “market-fundamentalist” types get so upset at the perfectly reasonable idea that pure capitalism is an inadequate model for a good society. Haven’t these people ever heard of market failures?

Sure, if markets always operated perfectly in accordance with elementary Econ 101 models, without bothersome annoyances like imperfect competition, externalities, imperfect information, barriers to entry and mobility, and so forth, then markets would adequately handle all of society’s needs without government interference or subsidies—hooray for capitalism!

But out here in the real world, the inescapable fact is that markets don’t always operate perfectly—so, to some extent and like it or not, hooray for socialism.

Kim:

(May I call you Kim?)

I offered up HK as probably the closest modern example of capitalist society. Closest. Not pure capitalism, but closer to the ideal than any other place. If you read my posts, you’ll see that I never said it was “purely capitalistic”:

But if you state that even this society was in no way truely capitalist, then how can you make a statement about what capitalism produces? Is it just conjecture?

Economics is not an exact science, as I’m sure you know, and you can’t do “pure” experiments, so we have to deal with what the world has presented us. By your reasoning, it is impossible to make any claims about capitalism.

So, show me the society that adopted capitalism, had a low poverty rate, then ended up with 25% of the people in poverty. If no such society exists, how do you support your claim? Is it based on a thought experiment?

Kimstu:

Let me clarify about HK. Gov’t housing is largely besides the point. Taxes, regulations, and general interference with free trade are the measures I’m using. In that sense, HK outshines even countries such as the US in terms of being closest to pure capitalism. Sorry if I left that kind of vague.

We do seem to be wandering off the point here, don’t we?

In my previous post, I wasn’t talking about the state of industrial societies as a whole. I was specifically addressing Kimstu’s statement that “Capitalism without some socialism produces a largely impoverished, inadequately regulated “winner-take-all” society” by pointing out, as John Mace did, that impoverishment and a “winner take all” mentality exist independantly of capitalism and are not products of capitalism. I realize from the context of her post, Kimstu isn’t saying that capitalism was the original creator of these problems. But I do think it’s valid to point out that that capitalism reduced these problems from the levels they existed at under the system capitalism replaced.

Mandelstam, if I’m understanding your posts, you’re saying that laborers went to work in factories because economic conditions pressured them into doing so. (“In England the Enclosure acts and other later measures such as the New Poor Law drove large numbers of people out of agricultural laborer by changing its material conditions in a disadvantageous way. Such people had little choice but to turn to industrial labor.”) If so, I disagree. The people who left the fields and went to work in the factories during the period you mentioned did so because, while both opportunities existed, factory work was much preferable. Factory work offered better wages for less labor. Nobody was forced to work in a factory, people were eager for the chance to do so.

Kimstu:

Just one more somewhat nitpick and I’ll let it go. If I went to my son’s class and saw that 75% of the kids had brown hair and 25% had blond hair, and made the statement that my son’s class was made up “largely of blonds”, would you consider that an accurate description of the class?

OK, I’m done.:slight_smile:

Hahaha! =) Communist utopia. A contradiction in terms.

Communism is the material movement towards the abolition of wage slavery, “more healthcare” etc., has nothing to do with it.

http://www.sinistra.net/

http://www.geocities.com/aufheben2/

http://www.geocities.com/antagonism1/

I’ve been avoiding this thread because, as I outlines in a pit thread earlier, if I hear “Communism looks good on paper, but doesn’t work in real life” one more time I’m gonna start running people over with my tractor.

That said, Communism isn’t a general term for any state where things are kind of equal. Communism is a specific state where people are not disenfranchised from their labor. This state, and the freedom that comes with it, would bring about many things, includeing the end of private property, the end of government, and most importantly a new paradigm where people’s actual thoughts would be so different (because for the first time ever, they’d be truely “free”) that we have trouble even contemplating what that state of freedom feels like.

So no, I don’t think the West is anywhere close.

Little Nemo:
“In my previous post…I was specifically addressing Kimstu’s statement that “Capitalism without some socialism produces a largely impoverished, inadequately regulated “winner-take-all” society” by pointing out, as John Mace did, that impoverishment and a “winner take all” mentality exist independantly of capitalism and are not products of capitalism.”

To be sure, poverty existed prior to capitalism–though it was differently organized and distributed. It’s never occurred to me to think of semi-feudal agricultural societies as “winner-take-all” since in such societies land, which is the primary source of wealth, is hereditary–more like “long-existing-winners-already-have-all-and-look-likely-to-keep-it.” :wink:

“But I do think it’s valid to point out that that capitalism reduced these problems from the levels they existed at under the system capitalism replaced.”

Perhaps. It would be especially valid if anyone were trying to say that capitalism should never have happened because agricultural society was “blissful.” But, as already pointed out, no one has been saying that, including Marx.

As it stands it’s a somewhat tendentious point depending on how these terms are defined. Did capitalism reduce impoverishment relative to agricultural society prior to the introduction of the reforms associated with “socialism”–the true topic of discussion? Only for some of the people some of the time.

Did capitalism reduce the prior existence of a “winner-take-all” tendency in feudal society? Only if you believe that such a tendency existed as such which, as I’ve already made clear, is a pretty anachronistic idea.

What I would say is this: industrial capitalism dramatically increased the wealth that was available to society as a whole. When industrialization was first introduced, it produced winners as well as losers. Over time, reforms were introduced that helped distribute that added wealth more evenly so that the whole society was better off than it had been. But it took aspects of “socialism” to do that. So that’s not an exception to what Kimstu was saying–it’s further evidence of it.

[Y]ou’re saying that laborers went to work in factories because economic conditions pressured them into doing so."

That is unquestionably true. I’m not saying that every single laborer that ever was made his/her decision exclusively on that basis. I’m saying that it is a commonplace that contemporaneous measures such as the Enclosure Acts forced people to seek alternatives to their traditional labor on the land.

Here’s an excerpt from this fairly simple website I found on the subject (which, to give you an idea of how “commonplace” this is, was apparently was produced for ninth-graders in Canada).

*"The Enclosure Acts forced small farmers off their lands for a variety of reasons:

  • The small farmers relied on the common land for fire wood and as a place to feed and water their animals.
  • When the land was redistributed, poor farmers tended to receive the worse pieces because they had no political influence.
  • Poor farmers relied on scavenged food as an important part of their supply. Scavenging was now illegal.
  • Poor farmers could not afford the materials to build the fences and gates required by the enclosure acts."*

Similarly, the New Poor Law, which clamped down on the outdoor relief that agricultural laborers had come to expect in hard times, and offered them relief only under prison-like conditions, was another sign that the “good old days” of a quasi-paternalistic rural England were over.

"The people who left the fields and went to work in the factories during the period you mentioned did so because, while both opportunities existed, factory work was much preferable. Factory work offered better wages for less labor. Nobody was forced to work in a factory, people were eager for the chance to do so. "

I’m not sure where you’re getting this information from Nemo, but it’s addled at best. Certainly many people made a choice to move to towns in search of industrial labor but, as pointed out above, their decision to do so was already impacted by measures that reduced the quality of life on the land. In other words, there is no way to get around the historical point I am emphasizing: because such measures were introduced, no one got to make any decision independently of them.

As to whether factory work was “much preferable,” offering “better wages for less labor,” as I’ve already said, that depends on who you’re talking about and what kind of variables you want to isolate. And a lot of times it’s like comparing apples and oranges.

Prior to industrialization a lot of these goods–mainly textiles–were produced in the home as part of mix between agriculture and cottage industry. Such families worked hard, but they worked together and somewhat independently. Also agricultural labor itself is seasonal: you work lots of hours part of the time and far fewer hours at other times of the year.

Now, yes, factory labor was sometimes very well paid and the best jobs were therefore eagerly sought by people–many of whom were Irish immigrants to England–who had left the land. OTOH, factory labor was monotonous, grueling, and subject to unpredictable cycles in an unregulated capitalist market. The factory working day could be as long as 18 hours and it was always six days per week. Eight year old children were involved in this labor, working, usually, fifteen hours per day (until protective legislation was introduced). They had no breaks except for meals and were fed a meager subsistence diet. If children fell asleep they were beaten. Children were employed this way a) because it was cheaper to hire them than to hire adults and b) because their little body parts were needed to creep into parts of the machinery too small for adults to reach (often resulting in injury to these children).

Why were parents ready to have their children working under these conditions? Because they needed their extra wages to survive.

Whenever they could, employers acted to reduce wages as much as possible: by hiring skilled instead of unskilled, Irish instead of English, women instead of men, children instead of adults, etc. Although workers were, during flush periods of full employment, able to do pretty well for themselves, (i.e., much better than rural laborers could do) those advantages would disappear with the next bump in the trade cycle, or with a flux of newer and cheaper labor, or with an innovation that de-skilled labor.

If you didn’t work you didn’t eat. Apart from charities, and the very punitive and deliberately stigmatizing terms of relief under the poor laws, there was nothing to fall back on.

Now if you want to characterize such conditions by saying “No one was forced to work in a factory, people were eager for the chance to do so,” you can be my guest. But let’s just say that you won’t get a job as a history teacher with that kind of uninformed statement ;).

Seriously though, what improved these conditions was trades union pressure, regulatory reforms, and, eventually, the introduction of social welfare–to wit, “socialism” (or as I prefer to call it “collectivism”).

Let me qualify that last statement: aspects of socialism/collectivism. I’m not at all making the case that these kinds of reforms have made western societies, then or now, into a “Communist utopia.”