I was at a blood bank symposium today, and someone mentioned transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease, which reminded me that I’ve had a question about that in the back of my mind for a long time.
Why is GvH more likely when a unit of blood is coming from a sibling, as opposed to a randomly-selected donor? Given that it’s an immune response by the donor white cells attacking the host’s body as foreign, I’d think that being less foreign (sharing an HLA haplotype) would make it less likely. But from what I’ve been told, it’s the opposite, which is why we always irradiate any directed-donor units that are coming from the patient’s immediate family, so we can inactivate the white cells.
If anyone can help me understand this, I’d really appreciate it. It’s probably really obvious, and I’ll kick myself later, but my brain is stalled.
Bonus question! Why do GvH symptoms involve the skin so much?