A friend of mine has kinda a messy situation. I will attempt to keep it short and succinct.
A friend of mine (A) recently went through a long, messy custody fight over her 5 year old son. Her ex-husband (B) opened this in response to an order for an increase in his child support.
Court found in A’s favor, numerous adjustments to custody arrangements all generally in A’s favor. A represented herself, B had a lawyer.
Secondary to this whole thing, the judge ordered them to attend a series of co-parenting/family therapy sessions to help them improve their communications/interactions with regards to the son.
6 months and dozens of therapy sessions pass.
Fast forward to a few days ago. B shows up with the sheriff’s dept with a court order to take emergency full time custody of the son (who normally lives with A, B has him for every other weekend and various holidays.)
The order is supposedly secondary to the therapist saying that A has a Histrionic Personality Disorder and is somehow a danger to the son because of it. B has taken custody until a court date can be arranged. A has a few 30 min supervised visitations until this is resolved.
In the meantime A has sought out her own therapist for a second opinion.
It has also turned up that the therapist is on retainer to the company B works for (it is a high stress occupation where occasional psych screening is seen as appropriate) and that B has been seen by this therapist several times prior to these family therapy sessions.
Therapist has supposedly allowed B to engage in abusive behavior during sessions, while refusing to allow A to reply/explain/present her side of the story. Generally A feels like this was just a giant evidence gathering session to have her custody taken away.
The therapist gave the information needed to request the emergency custody order to B, not to CPS, or the courts, directly to B.
The big question in my mind is this:
If a therapist is supposed to be treating a family unit, she should be doing so in an even-handed manner. If a therapist feels that there is a disordered behavior on the part of A or B, that they should arrange an independent session with A or B to attempt to address that individually. If I understand this correctly, if there is treatment needed for either partner in this, it is not necessarily the business of the other partner especially since they are no longer married. If so would this scenario give rise to some form of professional misconduct on the part of the therapist? One of the things I often hear is, the last thing you want is a therapist ratting you out to family, employers, etc, because you end up creating a person who will never seek therapy again.
Would something like this give rise to a legit HIPAA violation on the part of the therapist? If she felt the child was in danger, she can make that phone call to CPS all by herself without the ex-husband being involved.
I know A, I acknowledge that I may be biased in her favor. I think she is a little odd and I disagree with some of her parenting choices but I would never consider her dangerous and feel that her choices are within the bounds of normal.
I have advised her to discuss the matter with her new therapist WRT to the details of professional conduct under these circumstances. Based on that discussion she will pursue further legal action as needed.
I am just curious where the doper lawyers and psych professionals might weigh in on this type of thing and/or be able to comment on better questions to ask, perspectives to seek, or agencies to contact to deal with this type of situation.