Namely, this passage (quoted from the NIV):
You have heard that it was said, ‘Eye for eye, and tooth for tooth.’ But I tell you, Do not resist an evil person. If someone strikes you on the right cheek, turn to him the other also. And if someone wants to sue you and take your tunic, let him have your cloak as well. If someone forces you to go one mile, go with him two miles. Give to the one who asks you, and do not turn away from the one who wants to borrow from you.
At face value, it would seem that Jesus was teaching a level of passiveness that fits in with the idea that the meek shall inherit, blessed are the persecuted, love your enemies, etc. But I’ve also heard arguments that Jesus was teaching a passive-aggressive bit of resistance in that:
If someone strikes you on the right cheek, turn to him the other also
The arguement being that supposively raising the other cheek was symbolic of saying “You can not break my spirit. Strike me again”
And if someone wants to sue you and take your tunic, let him have your cloak as well
The arguement being that the ‘cloak’ was actually an undergarment and that, by giving it to them, you would make a mockery of their suing by standing before them naked and shaming them.
If someone forces you to go one mile, go with him two miles
The argument being that supposively there was a law that stated that Roman soldiers could only force Jews to carry their burdens for a single mile before they had to take it back. By continuing to carry the load, you forced the soldier to humiliate himself into asking you to let him have his load back.
The first one is pretty much open to interpretation, I suppose. The second hinges on the validity of “cloak” being an undergarment and Jesus telling people to get naked in court. The third hinges upon whether or not there was actually such a law and whether or not the soldier would actually be humiliated, etc. While I can find all sorts of sermons, editorial pieces and other bits of text saying this is all ture, none of them have any actual supporting evidence by historians, etc. After all, I can find all sorts of places saying America lost an attempt to speak German as a national language by a single vote as well. So you can understand my skepticism.
So is there actual historical evidence to hinge the above interpretation on or is it just someone’s opinions backed by myth? All of this is regardless of whether or not there was a Jesus and whether or not he actually said these things. Someone wanted us to take something away from the Book of Matthew and the question is what.