Growing up in the US, I learned that Hitler killed the Jews and other minorities because he was an evil person and needed a scapegoat.
However recently I got to talk to a German guy who made a more practical case for Hitler’s actions, one that seems more sensible in reality anyways.
He told me that because the Jews were traditionally banned from work and forced into banking and finance, they grew quite wealthy as the world changed and those industries became exceptionally profitable.
The anti-Semitic attitude in much of Europe had class undertones. People didn’t like the Jews, not because of religious differences but because they were wealthy and controlled so much.
Hitler capitalized on this public perception and also used it as a reason to capture significant Jewish assets needed to fund an expansionary war.
Can someone who understands European history offer a second opinion and tell me if this is an accurate account?